tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-54988838089314430742024-03-19T04:21:15.488-07:00QUESTION PAPERS DOWNLOADAll Exams Old Question Papers
www.questionpapersdownload.comSanjuhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/07750509656792324904noreply@blogger.comBlogger739125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-63612010646917734642024-03-19T04:20:00.000-07:002024-03-19T04:20:43.208-07:00PDO Exam Question papers 2024<h2 style="text-align: left;">PDO Exam Question papers 2024</h2><div>In the year 2024 Government Published a notification to recruit Panchayath Development Officers, The Recruitment process will begin in the month of April 2024. Everyone allready started requesting Question papers through Social media. We are happy to provide you Previous PDO Exam Question papers and model questions/ Expected Questions in our website.</div><p><br /></p><h3 style="text-align: left;">PDO Previous Question Paper- 2011</h3><div trbidi="on"><p><span><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-previous-year-question-papers.html">PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 11-14- Computer Knowledge</a></span></p><p></p><div style="font-family: "times new roman";"><p><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/rural-development-and-panchayat-raj_10.html"><span style="text-decoration-line: none;">PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 06-10- Rural Development and Panchayat Raj</span></a></p></div><p><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-general-kannada-questions.html"><span style="text-decoration-line: none;">PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 11-14- General Kannada</span></a></p><p><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-exam-previous-question-paper.html"><span style="text-decoration-line: none;">PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 20-23- General Knowledge</span></a></p><p></p><div style="font-family: "times new roman";"><div><p><span><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-exam-question-paper-download.html">PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 15-19- General English</a></span></p></div><p></p><div><br /><script async="" src="https://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/js/adsbygoogle.js"></script><p style="background-color: white; color: #292929; font-family: Lora, serif; margin: 1em 0px;"><b><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2023/07/pdo-exam-question-papers-revision-2023.html">PDO Exam Question Papers- Revision 2024</a></b></p><h3 style="background-color: white; color: #292929; font-family: Lora, serif; margin: 1em 0px;"><b><span style="font-size: large;">PDO Recruitment Notification 2024</span></b></h3><div><b><span style="font-size: large;">VAO Exam Question Papers</span></b></div><div><p style="font-family: "Times New Roman";"><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2024/02/va-recruitment-exam-general-knowledge.html">VA Recruitment General Knowledge Question paper.pdf </a></p><p style="font-family: "Times New Roman";"><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2024/02/va-recruitment-general-kannada-question.html">VA Recruitment General Kannada Question paper.pdf </a></p><p style="font-family: "Times New Roman";"><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2024/02/va-exam-general-english-question-paper.html">VA Recruitment General English Question paper.pdf </a></p></div><ins class="adsbygoogle" data-ad-client="ca-pub-1205377973946008" data-ad-format="fluid" data-ad-layout="in-article" data-ad-slot="4534972773" style="display: block; text-align: center;"></ins><script>
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</script><a href="http://onlineexamquestions.blogspot.com/2015/12/panchayat-development-officer-question.html" style="line-height: 16.8px;"><span style="text-decoration-line: none;">PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT OFFICER QUESTION PAPER</span></a></p><p><a href="http://onlineexamquestions.blogspot.com/2015/11/pdo-exam-preparation-questions-karnataka.html"><span style="text-decoration-line: none;">PDO EXAM PREPARATION QUESTIONS KARNATAKA</span></a></p><p><a href="http://onlineexamquestions.blogspot.com/2015/10/panchayath-developement-officer-exam.html"><span style="text-decoration-line: none;">PANCHAYATH DEVELOPEMENT OFFICER EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS</span></a></p><p><a href="http://onlineexamquestions.blogspot.com/2015/10/pdo-exam-questions-in-kannada.html"><span style="text-decoration-line: none;">PDO EXAM QUESTIONS IN KANNADA</span></a></p><p><a href="http://writtenexamquestions.blogspot.com/2016/07/pdo-exam-questions-in-english.html" style="line-height: 1.2;"><span style="text-decoration-line: none;">PDO EXAM QUESTIONS IN ENGLISH</span></a></p><p><a href="http://writtenexamquestions.blogspot.com/2015/12/pdo-exam-preparation-in-kannada.html" style="color: #0b5394;"><span style="text-decoration-line: none;">PDO EXAM PREPARATION IN KANNADA</span></a></p><p><a href="http://writtenexamquestions.blogspot.com/2015/10/pdo-exam-questions-in-kannada-language.html" style="line-height: 1.2;"><span style="text-decoration-line: none;">PDO EXAM QUESTIONS IN KANNADA LANGUAGE</span></a></p><p>uploading in progress.........</p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEieQNohFilhzQ5lJQpus6qpDRbKxaGMFelgSakc1-JFoLTt1ftjslOCihA0VAHJ0gHyulFfQTX0G0yJEoc3KCgDJfJpF02-43liF2Sjv_7em5wGmhVPtbbl8w7jyxkhxisjKRl1wD5iyeHOo4NIEWT9mDtaoLnAn-ZPOCjCqFPb3GpprVMeH5ADCTdCsDw/s1250/PDO%20EXAM%20QUESTIONS.png" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="PDO Exam Question papers 2024" border="0" data-original-height="625" data-original-width="1250" height="200" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEieQNohFilhzQ5lJQpus6qpDRbKxaGMFelgSakc1-JFoLTt1ftjslOCihA0VAHJ0gHyulFfQTX0G0yJEoc3KCgDJfJpF02-43liF2Sjv_7em5wGmhVPtbbl8w7jyxkhxisjKRl1wD5iyeHOo4NIEWT9mDtaoLnAn-ZPOCjCqFPb3GpprVMeH5ADCTdCsDw/w400-h200/PDO%20EXAM%20QUESTIONS.png" title="PDO Exam Question papers 2024" width="400" /></a></div>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-86500179772461353192024-03-07T04:23:00.000-08:002024-03-07T04:46:05.564-08:00VA Exam Computer Knowledge Question Paper in Kannada and English<p></p><h2 style="clear: both; text-align: left;">VA Exam Computer Knowledge Question Paper in Kannada and English</h2><div>VA Recruitment Examination will be carried our once the application process gets completed by KEA. The VA Examination will be conducted first time in Karnataka, because the VA Recruitment was carried out based on PUC Marks earlier. Here we published 30 General Computer Knowledge Question paper in Kannada and English Language. All other <a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/p/va-exam-question-papers.html"><b>Question Papers for VA Exam uploaded at www.questionpapersdownload.com</b></a></div><script async="" crossorigin="anonymous" src="https://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/js/adsbygoogle.js?client=ca-pub-1205377973946008"></script></b><ins class="adsbygoogle" data-ad-client="ca-pub-1205377973946008" data-ad-format="fluid" data-ad-layout="in-article" data-ad-slot="6026025138" style="display: block; text-align: center;"></ins><b><script>
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</script><h4 style="text-align: left;">VA Exam Computer Knowledge Question Paper in English page 1</h4><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjrbbCuiPK7pBnO-pyxrFPce8DrJ9EeG1ke5wbPonoOC3cBLagWtmlX6HgIVZc3hU7a2fFYLz3zo6YAHjmbErjIrL22oJXYmmPVjzNk6b_pheORFbwnwdxUZvPMfq7Kz7YliU3NLDEWyzUubwKG4u0tvQywxRiVcm9CAgfbUDgnkNZsVMwg0wH7LXRK5CAB/s2200/VA%20Exam%20Computer%20Knowledge%20questions_1.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="2200" data-original-width="1655" height="400" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjrbbCuiPK7pBnO-pyxrFPce8DrJ9EeG1ke5wbPonoOC3cBLagWtmlX6HgIVZc3hU7a2fFYLz3zo6YAHjmbErjIrL22oJXYmmPVjzNk6b_pheORFbwnwdxUZvPMfq7Kz7YliU3NLDEWyzUubwKG4u0tvQywxRiVcm9CAgfbUDgnkNZsVMwg0wH7LXRK5CAB/w301-h400/VA%20Exam%20Computer%20Knowledge%20questions_1.jpg" width="301" /></a></div><script async="" crossorigin="anonymous" src="https://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/js/adsbygoogle.js?client=ca-pub-1205377973946008"></script></b><ins class="adsbygoogle" data-ad-client="ca-pub-1205377973946008" data-ad-format="fluid" data-ad-layout="in-article" data-ad-slot="6026025138" style="display: block; text-align: center;"></ins><b><script>
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</script><h4>VA Exam Computer Knowledge Question Paper in Kannada page 1</h4><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgXR3U7mOMrrdKqWxP5dnWT1Etqa5z1c7j36x4iZlu9UZKzrDDMsjnE1Ut1r1892dhdVyEUimn-jzYv8DMoyBe0Zam4Wd-dUdUB_ek9Ci2mgnBIW1k2q0iFSLVTVhz8s8TVPBd1xKD7he8vuVod3yDQi0zB-TzYU8d9IWofJMPEFjCvVhkg6HuN_XCDI6HS/s2200/VA%20Exam%20Computer%20Knowledge%20questions_2.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="2200" data-original-width="1608" height="320" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgXR3U7mOMrrdKqWxP5dnWT1Etqa5z1c7j36x4iZlu9UZKzrDDMsjnE1Ut1r1892dhdVyEUimn-jzYv8DMoyBe0Zam4Wd-dUdUB_ek9Ci2mgnBIW1k2q0iFSLVTVhz8s8TVPBd1xKD7he8vuVod3yDQi0zB-TzYU8d9IWofJMPEFjCvVhkg6HuN_XCDI6HS/s320/VA%20Exam%20Computer%20Knowledge%20questions_2.jpg" width="234" /></a></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><h4 style="text-align: left;">VA Exam Computer Knowledge Question Paper in English page 2</h4></div><br /><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjtY0Ef5XhX46iw00cqB4CJOo_gnkY5AaW40p2qSSaOingaSr58C8lqWj4-ySvb4kV4zm1EB82nYI2B8ofBcK0fR7aRvMfwI46wvDkL-4PCJzxuzFCNR1DI_Y4T-ibQ0s5DKfUtT0TNP7OoDCt01CTxYrFhJbtx6pnThdHkWRp1VepaYA9n2bphBcSTRWub/s2200/VA%20Exam%20Computer%20Knowledge%20questions_3.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="2200" data-original-width="1595" height="320" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjtY0Ef5XhX46iw00cqB4CJOo_gnkY5AaW40p2qSSaOingaSr58C8lqWj4-ySvb4kV4zm1EB82nYI2B8ofBcK0fR7aRvMfwI46wvDkL-4PCJzxuzFCNR1DI_Y4T-ibQ0s5DKfUtT0TNP7OoDCt01CTxYrFhJbtx6pnThdHkWRp1VepaYA9n2bphBcSTRWub/s320/VA%20Exam%20Computer%20Knowledge%20questions_3.jpg" width="232" /></a></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><h4 style="text-align: left;">VA Exam Computer Knowledge Question Paper in Kannada page 2</h4></div><br /><div class="separator" style="clear: both; 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text-align: center;"><h4><a href="http://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uplo
/2024/02/VA-Exam-General-Knowledge-Question-Paper.pdf">VA Exam General Knowledge Question Paper-100 questions (Kannada/English).pdf</a></h4></div><br /><p></p>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-16402982735445049932024-02-26T20:03:00.000-08:002024-03-15T22:00:01.188-07:00VA Exam General English Question Paper<h2 style="text-align: left;"> VA Exam General English Question Paper</h2><div>The VA selection will be carried out on the basis of marks secured in the competitive examination from the year 2024. The Model Question paper of General English is published here. You can refer other <a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/p/va-exam-question-papers.html">Village Accountat Recruitment Examination Question papers at www.questionpapersdownload.com</a> </div><div><br /></div><div><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2024/02/va-recruitment-general-kannada-question.html">VA Recruitment General Kannada Question paper.pdf </a></div><div><br /></div><div><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2024/02/va-recruitment-exam-general-knowledge.html">VA Recruitment General Knowledge Question paper.pdf </a> </div><div><p><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2024/03/va-exam-computer-knowledge-question.html">VA Exam Computer Knowledge Question Paper in Kannada and English</a></p></div><h3 style="text-align: left;">VA Exam General English Question Paper page 1 </h3><p><a href="http://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/VA-Exam-General-English-Question-paper_1.jpg"><img alt="VA Exam General English Question Paper 1" class="alignnone size-large wp-image-38991" height="1024" src="http://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/VA-Exam-General-English-Question-paper_1-709x1024.jpg" width="709" /></a> </p><ins class="adsbygoogle" data-ad-client="ca-pub-1205377973946008" data-ad-format="fluid" data-ad-layout="in-article" data-ad-slot="5647968375" style="display: block; text-align: center;"></ins>
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</script>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-80104153334549065852023-12-26T03:08:00.000-08:002023-12-26T03:54:04.898-08:00Pharmacist Exam Solved Question paper Part B<h2 style="text-align: left;">Pharmacist Exam Solved Question paper Part B</h2><div>The Part B of Solved Pharmacist Exam is published here, Part A Question No 1-50 link Available in the bottom of this post</div><p>Question 51:-Synonym of “Seera”</p><p> A:-Terminalia chebula</p><p> B:-Semecarpus anacardium</p><p> C:-Butea Monosperma</p><p> D:-Sida cordifolia</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question 52:-What is the amount of Amla juice used for the purification of 35-gram</p><p>Croton tiglium?</p><p> A:-35 grams</p><p> B:-65 grams</p><p> C:-85 grams</p><p> D:-100 grams</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question53:-What is the colour of Masikkai Uppu?</p><p> A:-Yellowish white</p><p> B:-White</p><p> C:-Yellow</p><p> D:-Brownish black</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question54:-Which one of the following is given with Garlic and Pepper for</p><p>Abdominal bloating?</p><p> A:-Carum copticum</p><p> B:-Eclipta prostrata</p><p> C:-Crocus sativus</p><p> D:-Psidium guajava</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question55:-Dosage of Neeradimuthu Thailam</p><p> A:-195 – 1170 mg</p><p> B:-120 – 1200 mg</p><p> C:-520 – 650 mg</p><p> D:-16 – 650 mg</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question56:-Ettikottai Uppu at a dose of 1 mg has the property of</p><p> A:-Emmenagogue</p><p> B:-Tonic</p><p> C:-Astringent</p><p> D:-Carminative</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question57:-Which one of the following is mixed with Costus root and honey and</p><p>externally applied for Pimples?</p><p> A:-Butter</p><p> B:-Ghee</p><p> C:-Citron Juice</p><p> D:-Lemon Juice</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question58:-To treat Bronchial Asthma which one is used along with Perungayam</p><p>(Ferula asfoetida) for fumigation</p><p> A:-Dried Ginger</p><p> B:-Pepper</p><p> C:-Garlic</p><p> D:-Black gram</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question59:-Which one of the following has Rubefacient property?</p><p> A:-Corallocarpus epigaeus</p><p> B:-Cardiospermum halicacabum</p><p> C:-Sansevieria roxburghiana</p><p> D:-Anacardium occidentale</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question60:-Which one of the following is indicated for Gunmam (Gastric Ulcer)?</p><p> A:-Seeraga Chooranam</p><p> B:-Avuri Ver Kudineer</p><p> C:-Perungaya Kalavai Mezhugu</p><p> D:-Kovai Ilai Kudineer</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question61:-Which one of the following is used along with Lawsonia inermis</p><p>externally for grey hair?</p><p> A:-Indigofera tinctoria</p><p> B:-Cassia senna</p><p> C:-Hedyotis carymbosa</p><p> D:-Murraya koenigii</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question62:-Which one of the following is cooked with Egg, Cocunut milk and ghee</p><p>to relieve back pain?</p><p> A:-Bacopa monnieri</p><p> B:-Vitex negundo</p><p> C:-Trigonella foenum graecum</p><p> D:-Cucurbita maxima</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question63:-Which one of the following statements is false?</p><p> A:-Roots of Seenthil (Tinospora cordifolia) cures Hypertension</p><p> B:-Seenthil Posses Demulcent property</p><p> C:-Seenthil Sarkarai is indicated for Chronic Cystitis</p><p> D:-Por Seenthil is used to treat Anemia</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question64:-Match the following medicine with appropriate dosage:</p><p>1. Kodiveli Kudineer A. 130 ml</p><p>2. Athimadhura Paal B. 1 – 2 gram</p><p>3. Seenthil Sarkarai C. 1 – 4 gram</p><p>4. Perungaya Kalavai Mezhugu D. 160 – 325 mg</p><p>5. Soothaga Sanni Kudineer E. 700 ml</p><p> A:-1-E, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B, 5-A</p><p> B:-1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D, 5-A</p><p> C:-1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E</p><p> D:-1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D, 5-E</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question65:-Which one of the following plant is indicated for Jaundice with Irumbu</p><p>Chenduram?</p><p> A:-Kairavam</p><p> B:-Sutham</p><p> C:-Nisi</p><p> D:-Sagatham</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question66:-Chembu chenduram is given along with jaggery to cure ____</p><p> A:-Hiccup</p><p> B:-Anemia</p><p> C:-Intermittent Fever</p><p> D:-Cough</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question67:-Number of Pudam mentioned for the preparation of Aya Parpam using</p><p>Plumbago zeylanica leaves</p><p> A:-2</p><p> B:-3</p><p> C:-4</p><p> D:-5</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question68:-Which one of the following herbs is used in the preparation of Naga</p><p>Parpam?</p><p> A:-Asparagus racemosus</p><p> B:-Nymphaea nouchali</p><p> C:-Momordica dioica</p><p> D:-Sesbania grandiflora</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question69:-It cures 8 types of Gunmam</p><p> A:-Vani</p><p> B:-Thulli</p><p> C:-Aranpathi</p><p> D:-Sathu</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question70:-Mention the vehicle of Uloga Mandoora Chenduram indicated for Asites</p><p> A:-Lemon Juice</p><p> B:-Honey</p><p> C:-Alexandrian laurel flower</p><p> D:-Indian Sarsaparilla</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question71:-Match the 7 types of Rasa sattai with diseases</p><p>1. Vidam A. Piles</p><p>2. Agni B. Death</p><p>3. Vangam C. Thirst</p><p>4. Nagam D. Leprosy</p><p> A:-1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D</p><p> B:-1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C</p><p> C:-1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A</p><p> D:-1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question72:-Dosage of Annabedhi chenduram</p><p> A:-65 – 130 mg</p><p> B:-15 – 30 mg</p><p> C:-65 – 195 mg</p><p> D:-120 – 160 mg</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question73:-The verses “Maaran Nerum Kathuri Mathiri” is mentioned in the text</p><p> A:-Theran Tharu</p><p> B:-Theran Maruthuva Bharatham</p><p> C:-Agasthiyar Vaidhiya Kummi</p><p> D:-Theran Yamaha Venpa</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question74:-Ox bile has one of the following properties</p><p> A:-Diuretic</p><p> B:-Aphrodisiac</p><p> C:-Antiperiodic</p><p> D:-Expectorant</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question75:-To treat Enlarged Tonsils Sangu Parpam is given at a dose of</p><p> A:-120 mg</p><p> B:-260 mg</p><p> C:-130 mg</p><p> D:-390 mg</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question76:-Which one of the following statements is false?</p><p> A:-Dosage of Poora Ennai for Mantham is 1 – 1½ Ounce</p><p> B:-The anti-dote for Veeram toxicity is mentioned in the book Karuvoorar</p><p>Thandaga Seiyul</p><p> C:-Rasa Parpam mentioned in Theran Kappiyam is indicated for Mega Noi</p><p> D:-Rasa chenduram administered with Holy basil juice cures hydrocele</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question77:-Herb used for the preparation of Nandukkal Parpam</p><p> A:-Pavattai Juice</p><p> B:-Mullangi Juice</p><p> C:-Nerunjil Juice</p><p> D:-Nermulli Juice</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question78:-Gandhaga Rasayanam is indicated for</p><p> A:-Piles</p><p> B:-Jaundice</p><p> C:-Ascites</p><p> D:-Amenorrhea</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question79:-Which one of the following is an ingredient of Vanga Virana Kazhimbu?</p><p> A:-Manosilai</p><p> B:-Rasa Parpam</p><p> C:-Mirutharsingi</p><p> D:-Vanga Parpam</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question80:-Dosage of Padikalinga Chenduram</p><p> A:-130 – 260 mg</p><p> B:-390 – 650 mg</p><p> C:-260 – 390 mg</p><p> D:-120 – 240 mg</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question81:-Nerium odorum (Aarali), Datura (Oomathai) are classified under?</p><p> A:-CNS stimulent, Deliriant</p><p> B:-Cordiac poison, Deliriant</p><p> C:-Irritant poison, Cordiac poison</p><p> D:-House hold poison</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question82:-Which is the Antidote for Etti Kottai (Strychnus-Nux-vomica) poisoning?</p><p> A:-Naval Pattai (Eugenia Jambolana)</p><p> B:-Thantrikkai (Strychnus Potatorum)</p><p> C:-Phyllarthus Niruri</p><p> D:-Eclipta alba</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question83:-What are the antidotes given for Ganja (Cannabis Sativa) Toxicity?</p><p> A:-Decoction of dried Ginger, Lime juice</p><p> B:-Decoction of Terminalia chebula (Kadukkai)</p><p> C:-Watermelon juice, Lime juice</p><p> D:-Cucumber juice</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question84:-The following symtoms are present in which poisoning -</p><p>(1) Hyperhydrosis (2) Pallor of the face (3) Constricted pupil</p><p> A:-Datura poisoning</p><p> B:-Naabi poisoning</p><p> C:-Abini poisoning</p><p> D:-Kundrimani poisoning</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question85:-“Hippus” is a symptom present in -</p><p> A:-Aconite poisoning</p><p> B:-Alcohol poisoning</p><p> C:-Kundrimani poisoning</p><p> D:-Datura poisoning</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question86:-Cowdung is used for the purification process of -</p><p> A:-Etti kottai (Strychnus-nux-vomica), Nervalam (Croton tiglium) purification</p><p> B:-Aconitum ferox (Naabi) purification</p><p> C:-Kodiveli (Plumbago zeylanica) purification</p><p> D:-Nervalam (Croton tiglium), Serankottai (Semecarpus anacardium)</p><p>purification</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question87:-Which is the antidote for Kodiveliver toxic condition?</p><p> A:-Green gram vada prepared from Gingelly oil</p><p> B:-Black gram vada prepared from Groundnut oil</p><p> C:-Black gram vada prepared from Gingelly oil</p><p> D:-Green gram vada with Ghee</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question88:-Which drugs are used as Aborti facient?</p><p> A:-Kalappai kizhanku (Cloriosa suberba)</p><p> B:-Kodiveliver (Plumbago zeylannica)</p><p> C:-Arali (Nerium odorum)</p><p> D:-All the above</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question89:-Which is used for Kalapai Kilangu purification process?</p><p> A:-Goat urine</p><p> B:-Salted butter milk</p><p> C:-Milk</p><p> D:-Cow urine</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question90:-When the Kundrimani seed extract is injected the symptom resemple</p><p>as?</p><p> A:-Cobra bite</p><p> B:-Scorpion bite</p><p> C:-Viperine bite</p><p> D:-Wasp bite</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question91:-Antidote for CopperSulphate (Thurusu) poisoning is?</p><p> A:-Emblica officinalis Juice</p><p> B:-Zingifer officinale Juice, Honey, Sugar</p><p> C:-Buffalo Milk</p><p> D:-Tender Coconut Water</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question92:-Karchunna Neer (Limestone Water) mixed with Milk is used as an</p><p>antidode for -</p><p> A:-Beetle bite</p><p> B:-Scorpion bite</p><p> C:-Wasp bite</p><p> D:-Thiravagam</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question93:-Sundari Thylam is indicated for which bite?</p><p> A:-Cobra bite</p><p> B:-Pudayan bite</p><p> C:-Viper bite</p><p> D:-Mandali bite</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question94:-Which toxicity cause Dis colouration of the skin similar to the colour of</p><p>ridged gourd flower?</p><p> A:-Thalagam (Yellow Arsenic)</p><p> B:-Sulphur (Gandagam)</p><p> C:-Vermilion (Lingam)</p><p> D:-Mirthar Singi (Litharge)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question95:-Which is used for purification process of veeram (Mercuric chloride)?</p><p> A:-Goat urine</p><p> B:-Tender coconut water with camphor</p><p> C:-Cow dung</p><p> D:-Piper betal leaf juice</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question96:-Surai karuppu is given as an antidote for which of the following</p><p>poisoning condition?</p><p> A:-Pooram (Calomel)</p><p> B:-Veeram (Mercuric chloride)</p><p> C:-Rasam (Mercury)</p><p> D:-Lead</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question97:-Black colour discolouration of gum present in which of the following</p><p>toxicity?</p><p> A:-Copper</p><p> B:-Lead</p><p> C:-Mercury</p><p> D:-Mirthar Singi (Litharge)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question98:-In which bite Burning sensation, Throbbing pain, twitching pain is</p><p>present?</p><p> A:-Cobra</p><p> B:-Viper</p><p> C:-Rat</p><p> D:-Scorpion</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question99:-In the purification of Mirthar Singi, It is boiled with?</p><p> A:-Buffalo urine</p><p> B:-Donkey urine</p><p> C:-Goat urine</p><p> D:-Buffalo Milk</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question100:-Which is used for Thalagam (Yellow Arsenic) purification?</p><p> A:-Karchunnam, Palmtoddy</p><p> B:-Karchunnam,Water</p><p> C:-Karchunnam, Coconut toddy</p><p> D:-Karchunnam,Tender coconut</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><h2><a href="https://medical-jobs-india.blogspot.com/2023/12/pharmacist-recruitment-exam-question.html">Pharmacist Exam Solved Question paper Part B</a></h2>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-86955490747603836922023-12-12T03:32:00.000-08:002023-12-12T03:32:49.084-08:00SBI and DCC Bank Exam Question Papers with Answer 2024<h2 style="text-align: left;">SBI and DCC Bank Exam Question Papers with Answer 2024</h2><div>State Bank of India and DCC Bank Conduct Online Recruitment Examination for Selecting Candidates for the post of Probationary Officers and Circle Based Officers in SBI and Clerk and Manger in DCC Bank. Here we published model question papers that is useful for preparing the upcoming Examination in 2024</div><p style="text-align: left;"><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/2023/12/12/state-bank-of-india-recruitment-exam-question-paper-part-2/"><b>State Bank of India Recruitment Exam Question Paper -Part 1 and 2</b></a></p><div><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/2023/09/06/scdcc-bank-clerk-exam-previous-year-question-paper/"><strong>SCDCC Bank Clerk Exam previous year question paper</strong></a></div><div><br /></div><div><br /></div><div style="text-align: left;">You can also download these Question papers in pdf format at <a href="http://www.rightjobalert.com">www.rightjobalert.com</a> </div><div><span style="font-size: x-large;"><br /></span></div><div><div><br /></div><div style="text-align: center;"><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhCc-T-6j-lqJXxNkZEH5NYFCSpqqA527RU3tvukmrRM6-XuFr7EKj2YT5DjCgS2_s2q7WxjRMrJNO8CA1-x3zPxDSln_PypY2dv7kBnGtVRxhYHxoqZ79eZH8n7MfqCiCuWOZRO7G8UsZjBnqwZXg3yzHhtQbYKlHJIo6ubYDWToRfbvfPpG01bhoyoM5N/s594/SBI%20and%20DCC%20Bank%20Exam%20Question%20Papers%20with%20Answer%202024.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="SBI and DCC Bank Exam Question Papers with Answer 2024" border="0" data-original-height="267" data-original-width="594" height="288" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhCc-T-6j-lqJXxNkZEH5NYFCSpqqA527RU3tvukmrRM6-XuFr7EKj2YT5DjCgS2_s2q7WxjRMrJNO8CA1-x3zPxDSln_PypY2dv7kBnGtVRxhYHxoqZ79eZH8n7MfqCiCuWOZRO7G8UsZjBnqwZXg3yzHhtQbYKlHJIo6ubYDWToRfbvfPpG01bhoyoM5N/w640-h288/SBI%20and%20DCC%20Bank%20Exam%20Question%20Papers%20with%20Answer%202024.png" title="SBI and DCC Bank Exam Question Papers with Answer 2024" width="640" /></a> </div></div></div><div><span style="font-size: x-large;"><br /></span></div>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-18497009095820178452023-11-16T23:32:00.000-08:002023-11-16T23:32:44.149-08:00KSOU MA Political Science Question Papers<h2 style="text-align: left;">KSOU MA Political Science Latest Question Paper</h2><p>MA Question Papers of KSOU uploaded by <a href="http://www.rightjobalert.com">www.rightjobalert.com</a> . Click on the below subjects to download the question papers for pdf download free of cost</p><h3>MBA Question Papers for free download</h3><div><br /></div><div><b><span style="background-color: white; color: #333333; font-family: "Open Sans", sans-serif; font-size: 14px;"></span><a href="https://app.ksoumysuru.ac.in/question_papers/1673436796MA%20FINAL%20YEAR%20POLITICAL%20SCIENCE%20OCT%202022MERGED.pdf" style="-webkit-tap-highlight-color: transparent; background-color: white; box-sizing: border-box; color: #636363; font-family: "Open Sans", sans-serif; font-size: 15px; line-height: 24px; outline: none; text-decoration-line: none; transition: all 0.5s ease 0s;"><p style="box-sizing: border-box; line-height: 24px; margin: 0px 0px 10px;">• 2nd Year : M A POLITICAL SCIENCE -Questions papers [NON-CBCS] October - 2022 .<span style="box-sizing: border-box;">click here</span></p></a><span style="background-color: white; color: #333333; font-family: "Open Sans", sans-serif; font-size: 14px;"></span><p style="-webkit-tap-highlight-color: transparent; background-color: white; box-sizing: border-box; color: #636363; font-family: "Open Sans", sans-serif; font-size: 15px; line-height: 24px; margin: 0px 0px 10px; outline: none; text-decoration-line: none; transition: all 0.5s ease 0s;"><a href="https://app.ksoumysuru.ac.in/question_papers/16935638022nd%20%20sem%20political%20science%20%20may-june%202023%20merged.pdf" style="-webkit-tap-highlight-color: transparent; background-color: white; box-sizing: border-box; color: #636363; font-family: "Open Sans", sans-serif; font-size: 15px; line-height: 24px; outline: none; text-decoration-line: none; transition: all 0.5s ease 0s;">• 2ND semester MA POLITICAL SCIENCE Questions paper may /june -2023 .<span style="box-sizing: border-box;">click here</span></a></p><p style="-webkit-tap-highlight-color: transparent; background-color: white; box-sizing: border-box; color: #636363; font-family: "Open Sans", sans-serif; font-size: 15px; line-height: 24px; margin: 0px 0px 10px; outline: none; text-decoration-line: none; transition: all 0.5s ease 0s;">• M.A. POLITICAL SCIENCE - MASTER’S PREPARATORY PROGRAMME EXAMINATION, MAY - 2022 .<span style="box-sizing: border-box;">click here</span></p><p style="-webkit-tap-highlight-color: transparent; background-color: white; box-sizing: border-box; color: #636363; font-family: "Open Sans", sans-serif; font-size: 15px; line-height: 24px; margin: 0px 0px 10px; outline: none; text-decoration-line: none; transition: all 0.5s ease 0s;"><span style="box-sizing: border-box;"><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/search/label/MA%20Question%20Papers">More MA Question Papers</a></span></p></b></div>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-59127528582927677052023-11-06T23:29:00.004-08:002023-11-06T23:31:19.003-08:00KEA Nursing Officer Recruitment Exam Questions PART 3<h2 style="text-align: left;">KEA <a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/02/kea-staff-nurse-exam-question-paper-and.html">Nursing Officer Recruitment Exam</a> Questions PART 3</h2><p>41. Which of the following anti tubercular medication has the side effect of peripheral neuritis?</p><p>(A) Pyrazinamide</p><p>(B) Isoniazid</p><p>(C) Rifampicin</p><p>(D) Ethambutol</p><p>42. CPR & defibrillation should be initiated in a kind of arrhythmia -</p><p>(A) Atrioventricular block</p><p>(B) Premature Ventricular contraction</p><p>(C) Atrial fibrillation</p><p>(D) Ventricular fibrillation</p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiBucP5fZb8smknjeE3FKz8jvYo6dBYByIzReRsAdoPFa61S74XbIris3Rw2j7CgUpkadMoaip9nooWYi_nzMQyqGQUFRRhyze-FFK7iW51XmQK6WFzkKE9894ZaZiMUQfPKubi1VhbDwCQXrDvhvW7dpJ82GcGBjjqP8BjjafC99N0gSs_d89IFT3jVRGd/s435/KEA%20Nursing%20Officer%20Recruitment%20Exam%20Questions%20PART%203.png" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="KEA Nursing Officer Recruitment Exam Questions PART 3" border="0" data-original-height="258" data-original-width="435" height="190" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiBucP5fZb8smknjeE3FKz8jvYo6dBYByIzReRsAdoPFa61S74XbIris3Rw2j7CgUpkadMoaip9nooWYi_nzMQyqGQUFRRhyze-FFK7iW51XmQK6WFzkKE9894ZaZiMUQfPKubi1VhbDwCQXrDvhvW7dpJ82GcGBjjqP8BjjafC99N0gSs_d89IFT3jVRGd/w320-h190/KEA%20Nursing%20Officer%20Recruitment%20Exam%20Questions%20PART%203.png" title="KEA Nursing Officer Recruitment Exam Questions PART 3" width="320" /></a></div><p>43. Severe dyspnea, orthopnea, pallor, tachycardia and</p><p> frothy blood tinged sputum is seen in -</p><p>(A) Left heart failure</p><p>(B) Right heart failure</p><p>(C) Pulmonary edema</p><p>(D) Congestive heart failure</p><p><br /></p><p>44. An early manifestation of laryngeal cancer is -</p><p>(A) Stomatitis</p><p>(B) Hoarseness</p><p>(C) Dysphagia</p><p>(D) Airway obstruction</p><p>45. Paradoxical respiration is most commonly seen in -</p><p>(A) Flail chest</p><p>(B) Obstructive airway disease</p><p>(C) Cardiac tamponade</p><p>(D) Congestive heart failure</p><p>46. An early indication for development of hypocalcimia is -</p><p>(A) Memory changes</p><p>(B) Tingling sensation in the fingers</p><p>(C) Ventricular dysrhythmias</p><p>(D) Depressed reflexes</p><p>47. The life span of human platelets is -</p><p>(A) 10-12 minutes</p><p>(B) 10-12 hours</p><p>(C) 10-12 days</p><p>(D) 10-12 months</p><p>48. The life span of human RBCs is -</p><p>(A) 120 minutes</p><p>(B) 120 hours</p><p>(C) 120 days</p><p>(D) 120 months </p><p>49. The human blood cells are enucleated -</p><p>(A) RBC</p><p>(B) WBC</p><p>(C) Platelets</p><p>(D) Both RBC & Platelets</p><p>50. A patient with liver fail having edema is</p><p>most likely to recieve -</p><p>(A) Diuretics</p><p>(B) Laxatives</p><p>(C) Antidiuretics</p><p>(D) Beta blockers</p><p>51. The drug of choice for methicillin resitant</p><p>staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is -</p><p>(A) Clindamycin</p><p>(B) Vanomycin</p><p>(C) Erythromycin</p><p>(D) Gentamycin</p><p>52. Deep vein thrombosis renders a person at a</p><p>risk of -</p><p>(A) Pulmonary embolism</p><p>(B) Shock</p><p>(C) Stroke</p><p>(D) Heart attack</p><p>53. A patient came to ED unconscious with pin point pupil, lacrimation and history of substance abuse. Which drug to be administered to him?</p><p>(A) Naloxone</p><p>(B) Lorazepam</p><p>(C) Flumazenil</p><p>(D) Naltrexone</p><p>54. A patient with DVT is advised LowMolecular Heparin. At which site, the nurse should administer this ?</p><p>(A) Oral</p><p>(B) IM</p><p>(C) IV</p><p>(D) SC</p><p>55. Which drug may cause 'Gray-baby syndrome' ?</p><p>(A) Chloramphenicol</p><p>(B) Gentamycin</p><p>(C) Penicillin</p><p>(D) Tetracycline</p><h3 style="text-align: left;">Answers for the above KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Question </h3><p>Answer for Question No. 41 is Option B</p><p>Answer for Question No. 42 is Option D</p><p>Answer for Question No. 43 is Option C</p><p>Answer for Question No. 44 is Option B</p><p>Answer for Question No. 45 is Option A</p><p>Answer for Question No. 46 is Option B</p><p>Answer for Question No. 47 is Option C</p><p>Answer for Question No. 48 is Option C</p><p>Answer for Question No. 49 is Option D</p><p>Answer for Question No. 50 is Option A</p><p>Answer for Question No. 51 is Option B</p><p>Answer for Question No. 52 is Option A</p><p>Answer for Question No. 53 is Option A</p><p>Answer for Question No. 55 is Option D</p><p>Answer for Question No. 55 is Option A</p><p><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/02/kea-staff-nurse-exam-question-paper-and.html">Previous KEA Nursing Staff Exam Question Papers</a></p>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-23840343590281066092023-11-03T23:17:00.002-07:002023-11-03T23:19:46.508-07:00PDO Exam Questions 2023<h2 style="text-align: left;"><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/p/blog-page_10.html">PDO Exam Questions</a> 2023</h2><div>The model questions for preparing upcoming PDO Recruitment Examination published on 04/11/2023</div><p>PDO Exam Questions No.1. The duration before which elections for the new gram panchayat should be held after the constitution of an interim gram panchayat is : /</p> (A) three months<br /> (B) four months<br /> (C) five months<br /> (D) six months<div><br />PDO Exam Questions No.2. The plan prepared for achieving overall development of the panchayat within a specified time period is called<br /> (A) Five Year Plan<br /> (B) Perspective Plan<br /> (C) Vision Document<br /> (D) Village Plan</div><div><br /><div>PDO Exam Questions No.3. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, State Finance Commission may be<br />constituted ? <br /> (A) 143 H <br /> (B) 144 H<br /> (C) 142 H <br /> (D) 141 H</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgeR6V23aopFi_eZIwJ31X51Uk7kYVjxVFv6Xn78cugNcW1eFUI91DLEEet5AFcrP8_yi38aNnKxVgHwbBbynfkZkhLwi_sjE81eRHptHNhBysl3bASTKskdTN1pV96IiWFCAj5UTSCzoUZjidCeSOavAuzOYeeoqsRx6sG5yU98jBZbgui38cPS4uiFHT3/s600/PDO%20Exam%20Questions%202023.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="PDO Exam Questions 2023" border="0" data-original-height="291" data-original-width="600" height="194" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgeR6V23aopFi_eZIwJ31X51Uk7kYVjxVFv6Xn78cugNcW1eFUI91DLEEet5AFcrP8_yi38aNnKxVgHwbBbynfkZkhLwi_sjE81eRHptHNhBysl3bASTKskdTN1pV96IiWFCAj5UTSCzoUZjidCeSOavAuzOYeeoqsRx6sG5yU98jBZbgui38cPS4uiFHT3/w400-h194/PDO%20Exam%20Questions%202023.png" title="PDO Exam Questions 2023" width="400" /></a></div><br /><div><br /></div><div>PDO Exam Questions No.4. Accounts and Budget of Gram Panchayats are presented by</div><div><br /> (A) Adhyaksha</div><div><br /> (B) Panchayat Development Officer</div><div><br /> (C) Upadhyaksha</div><div><br /></div><div> (D) Chairman, Production Committee</div><div><br /></div><div>PDO Exam Questions No.5. Which of the following is considered as a vulnerable section in implementing the gram panchayat schemes ? <br /> (A) Unemployed</div><div> (B) Illiterates</div><div> (C) Drop–outs</div><div> (D) Migrants</div><div><br /></div><div>If u know the answer publish it in below comment section</div><div><br /></div><div><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/p/blog-page_10.html"><b>List of PDO Exam Questions- Click here</b></a></div><div><br /></div><div><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-exam-general-knowledge-questions.html" style="background-attachment: initial; background-clip: initial; background-image: initial; background-origin: initial; background-position: initial; background-repeat: initial; background-size: initial; color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; font-family: Lora, serif; font-size: 20px; line-height: 1.2; text-decoration-line: none;">PDO EXAM GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS</a></div><div><p style="background-color: white; color: #292929; font-family: Lora, serif; font-size: 20px;"><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/08/pdo-exam-questions-in-kannada.html" style="background: transparent; color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; line-height: 1.2; text-decoration-line: none;">PDO EXAM QUESTIONS IN KANNADA</a></p><p style="background-color: white; color: #292929; font-family: Lora, serif; font-size: 20px;"><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-general-kannada-questions.html" style="background: transparent; color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; line-height: 16.8px; text-decoration-line: none;">PDO GENERAL KANNADA QUESTIONS</a></p><p style="background-color: white; color: #292929; font-family: Lora, serif; font-size: 20px;"><span style="font-stretch: normal;"><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-model-question-paper-2016.html" style="background: transparent; color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; font-stretch: normal; text-decoration-line: none;">PDO MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2016</a></span></p></div><div><br /></div><div><br /></div></div>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-22758567917363494192023-11-01T09:23:00.002-07:002023-11-01T09:23:46.575-07:002nd standard EVS Question paper<h2 style="text-align: left;">2nd standerd EVS Environmental studies question paper</h2><div>Download 2nd standard EVS Question paper for Free in Josh format</div><p></p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhXI9m_tBi8Cg_LZvKoxA8dS3xvmI1eD8TXDHLWlBy0Z1KkDAc1wfxTO-ssGOFtRjZBfJFGbh9IM9fYNfeSYgsUmYMInq4__Jcp5c-dDRRaYVO0n_DT1lcENCA176jvFdLVCB2LBE7x6kBWOpW_IvMSJEwxB3DmVVPSo237HeOSqdNs1V2Tqx3qVlH2AbT8/s4160/16988555351756158417633803076627.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="2nd standard EVS Question paper" border="0" data-original-height="4160" data-original-width="2340" height="400" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhXI9m_tBi8Cg_LZvKoxA8dS3xvmI1eD8TXDHLWlBy0Z1KkDAc1wfxTO-ssGOFtRjZBfJFGbh9IM9fYNfeSYgsUmYMInq4__Jcp5c-dDRRaYVO0n_DT1lcENCA176jvFdLVCB2LBE7x6kBWOpW_IvMSJEwxB3DmVVPSo237HeOSqdNs1V2Tqx3qVlH2AbT8/w283-h400/16988555351756158417633803076627.jpg" title="2nd standard EVS Question paper" width="283" /></a></div><br /><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiORy5PRPotkTEp0cyRSzskvCytjuKbSgSwFPDFiVSeAwFR24fSfwPbu5y1_PxIP84fQES1cW1m5mzNTE0UgXwBC66CWbghRMK3oYXxdU4OXVSwH2aNHtk6G8YPhPBWAz6B7oDDhly_UWeyoHTgBToZgBWYKnJr7fsi9HXTBZbPX8b9Y7xam217LAi8eqUg/s4160/16988555640773076062396692841476.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="2nd std EVS Question paper" border="0" data-original-height="4160" data-original-width="2340" height="400" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiORy5PRPotkTEp0cyRSzskvCytjuKbSgSwFPDFiVSeAwFR24fSfwPbu5y1_PxIP84fQES1cW1m5mzNTE0UgXwBC66CWbghRMK3oYXxdU4OXVSwH2aNHtk6G8YPhPBWAz6B7oDDhly_UWeyoHTgBToZgBWYKnJr7fsi9HXTBZbPX8b9Y7xam217LAi8eqUg/w225-h400/16988555640773076062396692841476.jpg" title="2nd std EVS Question paper" width="225" /></a></div><br /> <p></p>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-7304043176832903502023-10-10T05:04:00.001-07:002023-10-10T05:04:05.507-07:00GNM Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Multiple choice and Descriptive Question papers<h2 style="text-align: left;">GNM Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Multiple choice and Descriptive Question papers</h2><div>The GNM Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Multiple choice and Descriptive Question papers published below</div><p><a href="http://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/Staff-Nurse-Exam-Question-paper-GNM-PAPER-I.pdf">GNM Staff Nurse Exam Question paper PAPER I GK and General English</a> </p><p><a href="http://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/Staff-Nurse-Exam-Question-paper-GNM-PAPER-II-1.pdf">GNM Staff Nurse Exam Question paper PAPER II</a></p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhW_tVtRmzBDaF3PMvr6WZMOLX3DcNF0E6ccCJTnCNfkDMdtoeoCF_nBoF8OQBE3w7D9bwHm4c_8pP9zrhPQSY0drQdrpzQkcNExjYMuIBqyF6ChaGm2Ruef-iQi6G_MYYl5-nU05Y1OBvSxXYOsAmndr6mNKZJWBIF6qZToSuM9vlE6EbaYt6AV95muTAU/s674/GNM%20Staff%20Nurses%20Recruitment%20Exam%20Multiple%20choice%20and%20Descriptive%20Question%20papers.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="GNM Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Multiple choice and Descriptive Question papers" border="0" data-original-height="400" data-original-width="674" height="190" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhW_tVtRmzBDaF3PMvr6WZMOLX3DcNF0E6ccCJTnCNfkDMdtoeoCF_nBoF8OQBE3w7D9bwHm4c_8pP9zrhPQSY0drQdrpzQkcNExjYMuIBqyF6ChaGm2Ruef-iQi6G_MYYl5-nU05Y1OBvSxXYOsAmndr6mNKZJWBIF6qZToSuM9vlE6EbaYt6AV95muTAU/w320-h190/GNM%20Staff%20Nurses%20Recruitment%20Exam%20Multiple%20choice%20and%20Descriptive%20Question%20papers.png" title="GNM Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Multiple choice and Descriptive Question papers" width="320" /></a></div><br /><p><br /></p><p><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2022/09/available-question-papers.html" style="background: rgb(255, 255, 255); color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; font-family: Lora, serif; font-size: 20px; text-decoration-line: none;">Other Question papers</a></p>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-72813880880083609402023-10-07T03:21:00.010-07:002023-10-07T03:33:51.383-07:00DCC Bank Mangalore Second Division Assistant Recruitment 2024 - Question Papers<h2 style="text-align: left;">DCC Bank Mangalore Second Division Assistant Recruitment 2023 - Question Papers</h2><p>DCC Bank Mangalore Second Division Assistant Recruitment process started in the month of August 2023 - The Previous Question Papers may help candidates to prepare well for the CBT/ Written Exam. The following are the Question Papers for Second Division Assistant in DCC Bank Mangalore Recruitment Exam. The following Question papers collected from <a href="https://rightjobalert.com/2023/09/06/scdcc-bank-clerk-exam-previous-year-question-paper/">www.rightjobalert.com</a></p><p><strong><a href="http://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/SCDCC-Bank-Mangalore-Clerk-Recruitment-Exam-Previous-Question-Paper.pdf">SCDCC Bank Mangalore Clerk Recruitment Exam Previous Question Paper</a></strong></p><p><strong><a href="http://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/SCDCC-Bank-Mangalore-Clerk-Recruitment-Exam-Previous-Question-Paper-2.pdf">SCDCC Bank Mangalore Clerk Recruitment Exam Previous Question Paper 2</a></strong></p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhw7VYVhEQ-WEeIhOL9NYaDW4gk5t3Ghlyv-8MpcnF2lKVMN1K8jov22gC5Yn1BZDXmIFVDChNfhrDlXmC4REjCb3Qid_hkZ-MbM4AHzVDji2izZO3B2GijWeCJrszZklmjtCYSXdFjKxKpB6KKTNR-79RZczhhKcI1E4Oa6x_tg-elVNbdbIcigdT5l3El/s580/DCC%20Bank%20Mangalore%20Second%20Division%20Assistant%20Recruitment%202024%20-%20Question%20Papers.png" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="DCC Bank Mangalore Second Division Assistant Recruitment 2024 - Question Papers" border="0" data-original-height="359" data-original-width="580" height="248" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhw7VYVhEQ-WEeIhOL9NYaDW4gk5t3Ghlyv-8MpcnF2lKVMN1K8jov22gC5Yn1BZDXmIFVDChNfhrDlXmC4REjCb3Qid_hkZ-MbM4AHzVDji2izZO3B2GijWeCJrszZklmjtCYSXdFjKxKpB6KKTNR-79RZczhhKcI1E4Oa6x_tg-elVNbdbIcigdT5l3El/w400-h248/DCC%20Bank%20Mangalore%20Second%20Division%20Assistant%20Recruitment%202024%20-%20Question%20Papers.png" title="DCC Bank Mangalore Second Division Assistant Recruitment 2024 - Question Papers" width="400" /></a></div><br /><p><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/p/blog-page_10.html"><b>Upcoming PDO Exam Preparation materials- Available here</b></a></p><p><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2022/09/available-question-papers.html">Other Question papers</a></p>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-87800122642465722812023-08-16T05:04:00.003-07:002023-08-16T05:04:59.258-07:0050 Biology Question Answers- Multiple Choice type<h2 style="text-align: left;">50 Biology Question Answers- Multiple Choice type</h2><p>The Department Kerala Police Service conducted Examination to select Director for Biology. Hte following Question Answers also useful for other Exams related to Bilogy</p><p>Total Number of Questiions- 100</p><p>Questions available in this page 50 (Remaining Questions also updated at www.questionpapersdownload.com</p><p>Question1:-Contribution of external factors in their descending order, in compressing the lymph vessel adn thereby causing pumping of lymph, are</p><p> A:-Contraction of surrounding skeletal muscles, movement of the part of the body, pulsation of arteries adjacent to the lymphatics, compression of the tissues by objects outside the body</p><p> B:-Compression of the tissues by objects outside the body, pulsation of arteries adjacent to the lymphatics, movement of the parts of the body, contraction of surrounding skeletal muscles</p><p> C:-Movement of the parts of the body, contraction of surrounding skeletal muscles, pulsation of arteries adjacent to the lymphatics, movement of the parts of the body, compression of the tissues by objects outside the body</p><p> D:-Movement of the parts of the body, pulsation of arteries ajacent to the lymphatics, contraction of surounding skeletal muscles, pulsation of arteries ajacent</p><p>to the lymphatics</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question2:-Who proposed the five kingdom classification?</p><p> A:-Robert H. Whittaker</p><p> B:-Ernst Haeckel</p><p> C:-Aristotle</p><p> D:-Carl Woese</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question3:-An ogive is a graphic presentation of the _______ distribution for a given</p><p>set of data.</p><p> A:-Frequency</p><p> B:-Relative frequency</p><p> C:-Percentage frequency</p><p> D:-Cumulative frequency</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question4:-Following measure of dispersion is not based on all the observation of a</p><p>series.</p><p>(i) Standard deviation</p><p>(ii) Quartile deviation</p><p>(iii) Mean deviation</p><p>(iv) Range</p><p> A:-(i) and (iii)</p><p> B:-(ii) and (iv)</p><p> C:-All the above</p><p> D:-(ii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjvBJa04FVKWq410x8RA4rkREGlhloihXGT2wIxYBs3Mj3WtFZBEYI7gMpKVhhCwNEAeQlaspXyHCNhCDw-EpomG76EW_xvGynmI3U_R7E-0LFccHT1KsHkut5r5fFQvG0PGJUhuiOdcxfCHuYkLzHcO8wvWwGhpBjNba3w88WjpwpYsNCuKMrZzjPdp-I6/s593/50%20Biology%20Question%20Answers-%20Multiple%20Choice%20type.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="377" data-original-width="593" height="203" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjvBJa04FVKWq410x8RA4rkREGlhloihXGT2wIxYBs3Mj3WtFZBEYI7gMpKVhhCwNEAeQlaspXyHCNhCDw-EpomG76EW_xvGynmI3U_R7E-0LFccHT1KsHkut5r5fFQvG0PGJUhuiOdcxfCHuYkLzHcO8wvWwGhpBjNba3w88WjpwpYsNCuKMrZzjPdp-I6/s320/50%20Biology%20Question%20Answers-%20Multiple%20Choice%20type.jpg" width="320" /></a></div><br /><p><br /></p><p>Question5:-Which among the following products from Kerala have registered under</p><p>Geographical indications recently?</p><p>(i) Kanthalloor Vattavada Veluthulli</p><p>(ii) Kodungallur Pottuvellari</p><p>(iii) Onattukara Ellu</p><p>(iv) Attappady Thuvara</p><p> A:-(i) and (ii) only</p><p> B:-(i) only</p><p> C:-(i) and (iii) only</p><p> D:-All the above</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question6:-_____ is a semi quantitative technique for detecting radioactively</p><p>labelled molecules in cells, tissues or electrophoretic gels.</p><p> A:-Immunoblotting</p><p> B:-Mass spectrometry</p><p> C:-Autoradiography</p><p> D:-SDS-PAGE</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question7:-Which of the following is not a characteristic of stem cells?</p><p> A:-Self-renewal</p><p> B:-Differentiation</p><p> C:-Apoptosis</p><p> D:-Proliferation</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question8:-Which microscopy will be used to view the details of live, unstained</p><p>cells?</p><p>(i) Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM)</p><p>(ii) Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM)</p><p>(iii) Phase Contrast Microscope</p><p>(iv) Differential Interference Contrast (DIC) microscope</p><p> A:-(iii) only</p><p> B:-(i) and (ii) only</p><p> C:-(iii) and (iv) only</p><p> D:-(iv) only</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question9:-Which of the following statements is not true about Agarose gel</p><p>electrophoresis.</p><p>(i) It uses electric current to separate DNA molecules.</p><p>(ii) Under electric field, DNA migrates from positive electrode to negative electrode.</p><p>(iii) If separates DNA by size.</p><p>(iv) Ethidium bromide is usually used to visualize DNA in gels.</p><p> A:-(iv) only</p><p> B:-(ii) only</p><p> C:-all above</p><p> D:-(iii) only</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question10:-Visualization at the nanoscale can be achieved by</p><p>(i) Scanning Tunneling Microscopy</p><p>(ii) Atomic Force Microscopy</p><p>(iii) Nomarsky microscopy</p><p>(iv) All the above</p><p> A:-(iv)</p><p> B:-(ii) and (iii)</p><p> C:-(ii)</p><p> D:-(i) and (ii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question11:-Monomers of Lactose are</p><p> A:-Two glucose molecules</p><p> B:-One glucose and one fructose</p><p> C:-One galactose and one glucose</p><p> D:-Two galactose molecules</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question12:-Which are the three aminoacids with aromatic side chains?</p><p> A:-Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine</p><p> B:-Lysine, Arginine, Histidine</p><p> C:-Phynylalanine, Threonine, Tryphtophan</p><p> D:-Phynylalanine, Tyrosine, Tryphtophan</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question13:-Select the incorrect statement about -helix from the following</p><p> A:-It was discovered by Linus Pauling in 1951</p><p> B:- -helix is left handed</p><p> C:-</p><p>-helix has 3.6 residues per turn</p><p> D:- -helix have an average length of ~12 residues</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question14:-______ lipids are involved in the production of pain and fever.</p><p> A:-Prostaglandins</p><p> B:-Cerebrosides</p><p> C:-Gangliosides</p><p> D:-Sphingomyelins</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question15:-The Watson-Crick model of DNA is based on X-ray diffraction data</p><p>provided by</p><p> A:-James Watson and Francis Crick</p><p> B:-Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins</p><p> C:-Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty</p><p> D:-Erwin Chargaff</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question16:-Select the correct statement from the following.</p><p>(i) In competitive inhibition, inhibiters bind to the active site of the enzyme.</p><p>(ii) Competitive inhibition can be overcome by a sufficiently high concentration of</p><p>substrate.</p><p>(iii) Noncompetitive inhibition cannot be overcome by increasing the substrate</p><p>concentration.</p><p> A:-(i) and (ii)</p><p> B:-(ii) and (iii)</p><p> C:-(iii) only</p><p> D:-(i, ii and iii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question17:-Which of the following matches correctly?</p><p>(i) Devonian - Mammals</p><p>(ii) Pennsylvanian - Fishes</p><p>(iii) Jurassic - Reptiles</p><p>(iv) Tertiary - Amphibians</p><p> A:-(i) and (ii)</p><p> B:-(ii) and (iii)</p><p> C:-(iii) and (iv)</p><p> D:-(iii) only</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question18:-The synthesis of sugars through the reversal of glycolysis is called</p><p> A:-Gluconeogenesis</p><p> B:-Glycogenesis</p><p> C:-Glycogenolysis</p><p> D:-Pentose phosphate pathway</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question19:-Carrier proteins that transport a single type of molecule down its</p><p>concentration gradient via facilitated diffusion are called</p><p> A:-Antiporters</p><p> B:-Symporters</p><p> C:-Uniporters</p><p> D:-Proton pumps</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question20:-Nucleosomes of eukaryotes contain _______ base pairs of DNA.</p><p> A:-147</p><p> B:-140</p><p> C:-90</p><p> D:-10-90</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question21:-Turner syndrome is due to</p><p> A:-Trisomy</p><p> B:-Monosomy</p><p> C:-Polyploidy</p><p> D:-Duplication</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question22:-CDK1/Cdc25C functions in</p><p> A:-The spindle assembly check point</p><p> B:-The spindle position check point</p><p> C:-The DNA damage checkpoint</p><p> D:-The intra S-phase checkpoint</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question23:-Which among the following is not a promoter elements in eukaryotes</p><p> A:-TATA box</p><p> B:-Initiators (Inr)</p><p> C:-CpG islands</p><p> D:-Pribnow box</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question24:-______ allows a tRNA to recognize more than one mRNA codon.</p><p> A:-Watson and Crick base pairing</p><p> B:-Wobble pairing</p><p> C:-D loop</p><p> D:-TψCG loop</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question25:-Which of the following combination is correct about ribosome</p><p>composition?</p><p>(i) 50S(23S+5S), 30S(16S)=70S</p><p>(ii) 50S(23S+5.8S), 30S(16S)=70S</p><p>(iii) 60S(28S+5.8S+5S)+40S(18S)=80S</p><p>(iv) 60S(28S+5.8S+5S)+40S(16S)=80S</p><p> A:-(i)</p><p> B:-(iii)</p><p> C:-(i) and (iii)</p><p> D:-(ii) and (iv)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question26:-Inactive but stable component of the genome derived by mutation of</p><p>an ancestral active gene is called</p><p> A:-Gene family</p><p> B:-Psuedogene</p><p> C:-Multigene</p><p> D:-Transposons</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question27:-The strength of relationship or association between a dependent and</p><p>an independent variables for a given population can be determined by</p><p> A:-Regression</p><p> B:-Correlation</p><p> C:-Standard deviation</p><p> D:- Goodness of fit</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question28:-Poisson distribution is associated with</p><p> A:-Probability of success</p><p> B:-Probability of failure</p><p> C:-Probability of occurrence of rare events</p><p> D:-All the above</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question29:-In hypothesis testing, a Type 1 error arises when</p><p> A:-Null hypothesis is rejected when it is true</p><p> B:-Null hypothesis is accepted when it is false</p><p> C:-Null hypothesis is accepted when it is true</p><p> D:-Null hypothesis is rejected when it is false</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question30:-Which of the following is not a cross-cutting issue permeating through</p><p>the Biosafety protocol 2000?</p><p> A:-Environment</p><p> B:-Human Health</p><p> C:-Precaution</p><p> D:- Trade</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question31:-Following is a list of some enzymes used in recombinant DNA</p><p>technology with their activity. Select the incorrect combination of enzyme and its</p><p>activity.</p><p> A:-T7 DNA polymerase : DNA polymerase and 3' exonuclease activities</p><p> B:-Poly(A) polymerase : Adds AMP from ATP to the 3' end of mRNA</p><p> C:-S1 nuclease : Degrades double-standard RNA</p><p> D:-Mung bean nuclease : Single-stranded DNA and RNA endonuclease</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question32:-Few terms have been explained below. Select the correctly explained</p><p>ones.</p><p>(i) Multiple factor hypothesis explains variation in complex phenotypes such as</p><p>height, weight,</p><p> and disease susceptibility.</p><p>(ii) Broad-sense heritability is the proportion of the total phenotypic variance that is</p><p>due to</p><p> genetic factors.</p><p>(iii) Fitness is the number of offspring left by an individual, often compared with the</p><p>average of</p><p> the population.</p><p>(iv) QTL are associated with a particular phenotypic trait, which varies in degree</p><p>and which can</p><p> be attributed to polygenic effects.</p><p> A:-Only (i) and (iv) are correct</p><p> B:-Only (iii) and (iv) are correct</p><p> C:-Only (i) and (iii) are correct</p><p> D:-All are correct</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question33:-Though fusion tags have been very helpful in the detection and</p><p>isolation of target recombinant proteins, they may interfere with the biological</p><p>function of the target protein eventually. Hence, they are generally removed by</p><p>cleaving a short linker amino acid sequence joining the fusion tag with the target</p><p>protein using appropriate protease enzymes. Which of the following is a commonly</p><p>used protease for performing the above cleavage?</p><p> A:-Trypsin</p><p> B:-Tobacco Etch Virus Protease</p><p> C:-Alpha peptidase</p><p> D:-None of the above</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question34:-The ectopic expression of some transcription factors can increase the</p><p>efficiency of somatic embryogenesis (SE) induction and lead to the formation of</p><p>somatic embryos without adding hormones. Mutations in these genes have a</p><p>negative impact on the efficiency of SE induction. Which of the following is not such</p><p>a transcription factor?</p><p> A:-LEC</p><p> B:-BBM</p><p> C:-NOR</p><p> D:-AGL 15</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question35:-When was the Protein Data Bank established and what was the</p><p>number of biological macromolecular structures held in the database at that time?</p><p> A:-1971 with 11 structures</p><p> B:-1991 with 11 structures</p><p> C:-1991 with 7 structures</p><p> D:-1971 with 7 structures</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question36:-Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a human bone disease. The majority of</p><p>people with this disease have a dominant mutation in one of the two genes that</p><p>produce type 1 collagen, COL1A1 or COL1A2. However, this disease doesn't affect</p><p>everyone who has COLIA1 and COLIA2 mutations in the same way. In fact, some</p><p>people can carry the mutation but have no symptoms. Which of the following terms</p><p>explains the above phenomenon?</p><p> A:-Variable Expressivity</p><p> B:-Incomplete penetrance</p><p> C:-Codominance</p><p> D:-None of the above</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question37:-Following are statements regarding bacteriophage lambda</p><p>(i) pR transcript encodes N, a transcriptional anti-terminator required for expression</p><p>of most</p><p> early lambda genes, and CIII, a positive regulator of lysogeny.</p><p>(ii) pL transcript encodes for Cro, CII, O, P, and Q</p><p>(iii) CII is the major lysogenic decision determinant, promoting the expression of CI</p><p>Which one of the options below represents the combination of all correct</p><p>stateemnts?</p><p> A:-Only(iii) is correct</p><p> B:-Only (ii) is correct</p><p> C:-Both (ii) and (iii) are correct</p><p> D:-Both (i) and (ii) are correct</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question38:-Which of the following is an incorrect statement?</p><p> A:-H2AX is a variant of the histone protein H2 located throughout the</p><p>chromatin region</p><p> B:-Macro H2C is a variant of the histone protein H2 located in the inactive X</p><p>chromosome region</p><p> C:-H2Az is a variant of the histone protein H2 located in the euchromatin</p><p>region</p><p> D:-CENP-A is a variant of the histone protein H3 located in the centromere</p><p>region</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question39:-Which of the following is an incorrect combination of a viral disease</p><p>and the Order of the causative virus?</p><p>(i) AIDS : Orterirales</p><p>(ii) Measles : Mononegativrales</p><p>(iii) SARS : Norzivirales</p><p>(iv) Rabies : Mononegavirales</p><p> A:-Both (i) and (ii)</p><p> B:-Both (ii) and (iv)</p><p> C:-Only (ii)</p><p> D:-Only (iii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question40:-The mode of action of certain antibiotics is given below</p><p>(i) Ampicillin : Inhibition of cell wall synthesis by interference with peptidoglycan</p><p>cross-linking</p><p>(ii) Chloramphenicol : Inhibition of translation by blocking peptidyl transferase on</p><p>the 50S</p><p> ribosomal submit</p><p>Select the right option</p><p> A:-Both (i) and (ii) are correct</p><p> B:-Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect</p><p> C:-Only (i) is correct</p><p> D:-Only (ii) is correct</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question41:-Which of the following media is selective and differential in its</p><p>function?</p><p>(i) Eosin methylene blue agar</p><p>(ii) MacConkey Agar</p><p>(iii) Mannitol Salt Agar</p><p> A:-Only (i) and (ii)</p><p> B:-Only (ii) and (iii)</p><p> C:-Only (iii)</p><p> D:-All of the above</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question42:-Given below are hyperaccumulator plants with the elements that they</p><p>accumulate. Find out the correct combination.</p><p>(i) Nickel:Phyllanthus</p><p>(ii) Zinc : Arabidopsis</p><p>(iii) Arsenic : Pteris</p><p>(iv) Copper : Commelina</p><p> A:-Both (i) and (ii) are correct</p><p> B:-All are correct</p><p> C:-Both (iii) and (iv) are correct</p><p> D:-Only (iii) is correct</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question43:-Which among the following does not belong to schedule I as per the</p><p>Wildlife Protection Act in India?</p><p> A:-Gangetic Dolphin</p><p> B:-Indian Porcupine</p><p> C:-Musk Deer</p><p> D:-Swamp Deer</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question44:-Which of the following statements is correct about ice cores?</p><p>(i) The U.S. National Ice Core Laboratory, in Lakewood, Colorado, is the U.S. storage</p><p>facility,</p><p> which archives ice cores from all over the world</p><p>(ii) The ice cores contain annual layers that can be counted to known the age of the</p><p>ice, just</p><p> like rings inside a tree.</p><p>(iii) In India, ice core facility is available at Centre for Climate Research, IITM, Pune.</p><p>(iv) Ice cores tell about past climate, including the past atmospheric temperatures</p><p>and</p><p> greenhouse gases.</p><p> A:-All are correct</p><p> B:-Only (i) and (iv) are correct</p><p> C:-Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct</p><p> D:-Only (ii) and (iv) are correct</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question45:-The natural products obtained from plants belong to different classes</p><p>and almost each one shows antiinfective properties. Among the various classes, the</p><p>ones with the lowest proportion of antiinfective metabolites are</p><p> A:-Sugars and Glycosylated compounds</p><p> B:-Phenolic compounds like xanthones and coumarins</p><p> C:-Peptides</p><p> D:-Anthracenes</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question46:-What is preimplantation genetic testing?</p><p> A:-A technique used to determine the sex of the embryo before implantation</p><p> B:-A technique used to screen embryos for genetic disorders</p><p> C:-A technique used to select the most viable embryo for implantation</p><p> D:-A technique used to modify the genes of the embryo</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question47:-Identify the incorrect statement.</p><p>(i) Density gradient centrifugation can be used to identify all repetitive DNA</p><p>sequences</p><p>(ii) The most highly repeated sequences in eukaryotic genomes do not encode</p><p>Proteins or</p><p> RNA</p><p>(iii) The most prevalent of the repeated DNA sequences are transposable genetic</p><p>elements, or</p><p> inactive sequences derived from transposable elements.</p><p>(iv) An abundance of dispersed repetitive DNA in the genome makes chromosomes</p><p>walking</p><p> easier.</p><p> A:-Only (i)</p><p> B:-Both (i) and (iv)</p><p> C:-Only (ii)</p><p> D:-Both (ii) and (iv)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question48:-Who among the following has received Nobel Prize for a direct</p><p>contribution to the field of Genetics?</p><p>(i) Har Gobind Khurana</p><p>(ii) Arthur Kornberg</p><p>(iii) Hamilton O Smith</p><p>(iv) Beadle and Tatum</p><p> A:-All of them</p><p> B:-Only (i) and (ii)</p><p> C:-Only (i), (ii) and (iv)</p><p> D:-Only (iii) and (iv)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question49:-Read the following statements in the context of epigenetics.</p><p>(i) When the DNA of a cell is replicated, histones associated with the DNA as part of</p><p>the</p><p> nucleosomes are distributed randomly to the daughter cells along with the DNA</p><p>molecules.</p><p>(ii) Histone code postulates that the state and activity of a particular region of</p><p>chromatin</p><p> depend on the specific modifications, or combinations of modifications, to the</p><p>histone tails</p><p> in that region.</p><p>(iii) The most notable histone modifications include acetylation, methylation and</p><p> phosphorylation.</p><p>(iv) Histone modifications alter the manner in which the histone tails of neighboring</p><p> nucleosomes interact with one another</p><p>Which among the above is a correct statement?</p><p> A:-Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)</p><p> B:-Only (i), (ii) and (iii)</p><p> C:-Only (iii) and (iv)</p><p> D:-All are correct</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question50:-The major facilities supported by the Biotechnology Information</p><p>System Network (BTISnet) of the Department of Biotechnology, India include</p><p> A:-Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC)</p><p> B:-Indo-Japan DAICENTER Programme</p><p> C:-MANAV : Human Atlas Initiative</p><p> D:-All of the above</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-41516408256329616852023-07-21T04:26:00.009-07:002023-07-21T04:47:59.253-07:00Nutrition Officer Recruitment Exam Question Paper with Answer Part 2<h2 style="text-align: left;">Nutrition Officer Recruitment Exam Question Paper with Answer Part 2</h2><h3 style="text-align: left;">Question Paper Details</h3><p>Exam: State Nutrition Officer<br />Date of Test 06-06-2023</p><p>No. of Questions: 100 ( Part 2-50)</p><p>Department: Department Health Services</p><h3 style="text-align: left;"><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2023/07/nutrition-officer-recruitment-exam.html">Nutrition Officer Recruitment Exam Question Paper with answer part 1- (Question No. 1-50) Click here</a> <br /></h3><p></p><h3 style="text-align: left;">Nutrition Officer Recruitment Exam Question Paper with Answer Part 2</h3><p>Question51:-Recent techniques and advances in Food Preservation<br />A:-Hurdle technology<br />B:-Mixed technology<br />C:-Stumbling technology<br />D:-Multiple technology<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question52:-Organic acid used in food preservation include<br />A:-Nitric acid<br />B:-Phophoric acid<br />C:-Hydrochloric acid<br />D:-Sorbic acid<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question53:-The reason for food spoilage is<br />A:-Growth of microorganism such as bacteria, fungus etc.<br />B:-Autolysis<br />C:-Oxidation by air<br />D:-All of the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question54:-Meat food products order 1973 was promoted under the act:<br />A:-Essential Service Maintenance Act<br />B:-Consumer Protection Act, 1986<br />C:-Essential Commodities Act, 1955<br />D:-Right to Food Act<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question55:-AGMARK Act 1937 comes under<br />A:-Department of Consumer Affairs, GOI<br />B:-Directorate of Marketing and Inspection<br />C:-Department of Legal Metrology<br />D:-Department of Agriculture and Cooperation<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question56:-What is an example of a biological hazard?<br />A:-Salmonella<br />B:-Antibiotics<br />C:-Pesticide<br />D:-Metallic objects<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question57:-Pasteurization of milk effectively kills all the following except:<br />A:-Fever organisms<br />B:-Tubercle bacilli<br />C:-Salmonella<br />D:-Bacterial spores<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question58:-Clostridium perfinges poisoning is associated with<br />A:-Canned food<br />B:-Meat products<br />C:-Vegetables<br />D:-Fish products<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question59:-What are the intrinsic factors for microbial growth?<br />A:-Moisture<br />B:-Redox potential<br />C:-pH<br />D:-All of the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question60:-Fortification means<br />A:-To add additives in processed food products<br />B:-To add nutrients in food products<br />C:-To add oil fat in food products<br />D:-All of the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question61:-The generic name of polysaccharides is<br />A:-Pentoses<br />B:-Cellulose<br />C:-Glycans<br />D:-Glucans<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question62:-Inulin is a polymer of<br />A:-Fructose<br />B:-Glucose<br />C:-Lactose<br />D:-Galactose<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question63:-The ratio of amino acids converted to proteins to the ratio of amino<br />acids supplied, is called as<br />A:-NPU<br />B:-PER<br />C:-Biological value<br />D:-Nitrogen balance<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question64:-Two chain of DNA are formed by<br />A:-Sugar deoxy ribulose and sulphate<br />B:-Sugar and zinc<br />C:-Sugar deoxyribose and phosphate<br />D:-Copper and deoxyribose<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question65:-Under anaerobic condition of glycolysis pyruvic acid is converted to<br />A:-Pyruvic acid<br />B:-Lactic acid<br />C:-Citric acid<br />D:-Glucose<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question66:-Fatty acids are oxidized in the<br />A:-Mitochondria<br />B:-Cytoplast<br />C:-Lysosome<br />D:-None of the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question67:-During fasting, glucose is phosphorylated mainly by<br />A:-Glucokinase<br />B:-Hexokinase<br />C:-Both (a) and (b)<br />D:-None of the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question68:-Which of the following substances is being separated using gas-solid<br />chromatography?<br />A:-Thermally stable organic components<br />B:-Volatile organic components<br />C:-Thermally stable inorganic components<br />D:-Low molecular weight gaseous species<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question69:-Menke's disease is due to an abnormality in the metabolism of<br />A:-Iron<br />B:-Manganese<br />C:-Magnesium<br />D:-Copper<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question70:-Dietary fiber denotes<br />A:-Undigested proteins<br />B:-Plant cell components that cannot be digested by own enzymes<br />C:-All plant cell wall components<br />D:-All non-digestible water insoluble polysaccharide<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question71:-Applied nutrition programme was aided by<br />A:-UNICEF<br />B:-FAO<br />C:-WHO<br />D:-All the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question72:-_______ provides the clearest picture of acute malnutrition in a<br />population at a specific point in time.<br />A:-Weight for Age<br />B:-Height for Age<br />C:-Weight for Height<br />D:-All the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question73:-DASH diet is recommended for patients with<br />A:-Diabetes<br />B:-Cancer<br />C:-Hypertension<br />D:-Acute Respiratory Distress<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question74:-Which method is suitable for a small group of mothers to present a<br />situation illustrating how they deal with malnourished children?<br />A:-Problem Solving Method<br />B:-Role Play Method<br />C:-Discussion Decision Method<br />D:-None<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question75:-Applied nutrition programme was aided by<br />A:-UNICEF<br />B:-FAO<br />C:-WHO<br />D:-All the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question76:-National Program for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes,<br />Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS) was launched in<br />A:-2009<br />B:-2011<br />C:-2010<br />D:-2012<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question77:-Vitamin A prophylaxis Programme recommended a dose of ________<br />Vitamin A for children in age group of 1-5 years.<br />A:-0.3 million IU<br />B:-0.1 million IU<br />C:-0.4 million IU<br />D:-0.2 million IU<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question78:-Match the year of intervention programmes of malnutrition<br />ICDS (i) 1971<br />SNP (ii) 1975<br />WNP (iii) 1986<br />MDM (iv) 1956<br />A:-(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)<br />B:-(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)<br />C:-(ii), (i), (iii), (iv)<br />D:-(i), (ii), (iv), (iii)<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question79:-Message circulated in the form of letter among the intended group of<br />receivers<br />A:-Announcement letter<br />B:-Calendar<br />C:-Circular letter<br />D:-Leaflet<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question80:-Which statement is incorrect?<br />A:-Discussion is an unorganized conversation<br />B:-Discussion promote socialized interaction<br />C:-Get possible solutions<br />D:-Leadership and participation are two essential characteristics of discussion<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question81:-High altitude leads to<br />A:-Acute Mountain Sickness<br />B:-High Altitude Pulmonary Oedema<br />C:-High Altitude Cerebral Oedema<br />D:-All the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question82:-Sports persons have to consume ________ fruits and vegetables.<br />A:-500-700 g<br />B:-250-500 g<br />C:-700-900 g<br />D:-100-200 g<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question83:-Catabolic hormones are _______ during and after space flight.<br />A:-Altered<br />B:-No change<br />C:-Decreased<br />D:-Increased<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question84:-For athletes all these drugs are banned except<br />A:-Amino acids<br />B:-Anabolic Steroids<br />C:-Beta 2 Agonists<br />D:-Diuretics<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question85:-Among the techniques used to assess body composition which has the<br />lowest standard error of estimate.<br />A:-Hydrodensitometry<br />B:-Skinfold<br />C:-Bioelectric Impedance Analysis<br />D:-DXA<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question86:-For long lasting events ________ pathway provides primary fuel.<br />A:-Glycolytic<br />B:-Non oxidative<br />C:-Oxidative<br />D:-Phosphagen<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question87:-At high altitude intake of carbohydrate need to be<br />A:-Low<br />B:-High<br />C:-Moderate<br />D:-Adequate<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question88:-Type of beverage most suitable for sports persons 1-2 hour before<br />activity<br />A:-Plain cold water<br />B:-Diluted fruit juice<br />C:-Glucose<br />D:-Electrolyte drink<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question89:-Which of the following is not true related to food handling in<br />emergencies?<br />A:-Type of disaster<br />B:-Duration of disaster<br />C:-Nutritional status of population following disaster<br />D:-Size of disaster affected area<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question90:-For athletes who are physically very active fluid requirements are<br />increased from<br />A:-5-10 L/day<br />B:-5 L/day<br />C:-5 to 16 L/day<br />D:-15 L/day<br />Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled<br />Question91:-Which is a variable associated with control group?<br />(i) Independent variable<br />(ii) Dependent variable<br />(iii) Effect<br />(iv) Criterion variable<br />A:-(ii), (iii), (iv)<br />B:-(i), (ii), (iii)<br />C:-(i), (iii), (iv)<br />D:-(ii), (iii), (i)<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question92:-In which type of interview free environment is given to respondents so<br />that they can express their views freely and the interviewer simply supports the<br />views expressed by the respondent instead of approving or disapproving them?<br />A:-Focussed interview<br />B:-Clinical interview<br />C:-Non-directive interview<br />D:-Structured interview<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question93:-_______ deals with different meaning of words.<br />A:-Syntactics<br />B:-Diction<br />C:-Grammar<br />D:-Semantics<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question94:-Choose the ethical problems in research<br />(i) Beneficence<br />(ii) Breach of confidentiality<br />(iii) Plagiarism<br />(iv) Coercion<br />A:-(i), (ii), (iv)<br />B:-(i), (ii), (iii)<br />C:-(ii), (iii), (iv)<br />D:-(i), (iii), (iv)<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question95:-Correct sequence in steps of research process<br />A:-Validated findings-peer review-Addition to the pool of knowledge<br />B:-Addition to the pool of knowledge-peer review-validated findings<br />C:-Peer review - Validated findings - Addition to the pool of knowledge<br />D:-Peer review - Addition to the pool of knowledge - Validated findings<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question96:-Method of collection of data to obtain accuracy in recording the scores<br />A:-Reliability<br />B:-Generalisation<br />C:-Validity<br />D:-Objectivity<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question97:-Which of the following steps in research are least vulnerable to ethics<br />in research?<br />(i) Data Collection Procedure<br />(ii) Data Analysis Procedure<br />(iii) Defining research variables<br />(iv) Identify research variables<br />A:-(iii), (iv)<br />B:-(i), (ii)<br />C:-(ii), (iv)<br />D:-(i), (iv)<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question98:-Sampling which is useful when we are trying to reach population that<br />are inaccessible or hard to find<br />A:-Quota sampling<br />B:-Stratified sampling<br />C:-Snowball sampling<br />D:-Multistage sampling<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question99:-Which statement on peer review is true?<br />A:-A method of typesetting in publishing<br />B:-Process of peer review ensures that a scientific paper is correct<br />C:-Process by which scientists friends can give advice<br />D:-Process by which independent scientists evaluate the technical merit of<br />scientific research<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question100:-Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in case study<br />(i) Collecting background information<br />(ii) Determining the present status<br />(iii) Instituting remedial action<br />(iv) Testing the suggested hypothesis<br />A:-(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)<br />B:-(ii), (i), (iii), (iv)<br />C:-(i), (ii), (iv), (iii)<br />D:-(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2023/07/nutrition-officer-recruitment-exam.html">Nutrition Officer Recruitment Exam Question Paper with Answer Part 1</a></p><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/2023/07/21/nutrition-officer-recruitment-exam-question-paper-with-answer-pdf/ ">Nutrition Officer Recruitment Exam Question Paper with Answer all 100 questions pdf. </a><br /></p><p><br /></p>Sanjuhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/07750509656792324904noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-43913417705580145712023-07-21T04:24:00.004-07:002023-07-21T04:24:21.461-07:00Nutrition Officer Recruitment Exam Question Paper pdf<h2 style="text-align: left;">Nutrition Officer Recruitment Exam Question Paper pdf</h2><h3 style="text-align: left;">Question Paper Details</h3><p>Exam: State Nutrition Officer<br />Date of Test 06-06-2023</p><p>No. of Questions: 100 ( Part 1-50)</p><p>Department: Department Health Services</p><p></p><h3 style="text-align: left;">Nutrition Officer Recruitment Exam Question Paper part 1<br /></h3><p>Question1:-The statistical study of human populations.<br />A:-Demography<br />B:-Topography<br />C:-Human Development<br />D:-Anthropology<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question2:-The Sustainable Development Goals are:<br />A:-Ending poverty in all its forms everywhere<br />B:-Ending hunger, achieving food security, improving nutrition and promoting<br />sustainable agriculture<br />C:-Ensuring healthy lives and promoting well-being for all at all ages<br />D:-All of the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question3:-The rate that defines the number of deaths of children before their first<br />birthday.<br />A:-Morbidity<br />B:-Infant mortality<br />C:-Death rate<br />D:-Death ratio<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question4:-Tool to calculate hunger and malnutrition at the regional level in India<br />A:-Indian Hunger Index (IHI)<br />B:-The India State Hunger Index (ISHI)<br />C:-Hunger Index India (HII)<br />D:-Index of Hunger of India (IHI)<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question5:-What is the Human Development Index (HDI)?<br />A:-An index that measures development stages of human<br />B:-An index that measures key dimensions of human development<br />C:-An index that measures human growth<br />D:-An index that measures development of human body<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question6:-What is the infant mortality rate of Kerala?<br />A:-Comparable to any developed nation.<br />B:-Like any other under developed countries<br />C:-Like other developing countries<br />D:-Like other states of India<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question7:-Major areas of epidemiological study include<br />A:-Disease causation transmission and outbreak investigation<br />B:-Medical Camps, Disease survey and Investigation.<br />C:-Screening, biomonitoring and comparisons of treatment effects<br />D:-Both (A) and (C)<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question8:-What does NIN stands for<br />A:-National Index of Nutrition<br />B:-National Institute of Nutrition<br />C:-Nutritional Index of Neonates<br />D:-national Insurance for Nutrition<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question9:-The science of public health is termed as<br />A:-Public health care<br />B:-Epidemiology<br />C:-Entomology<br />D:-Pomology<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question10:-What is Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER)?<br />A:-Socio economic indicators<br />B:-Medical status indicators<br />C:-Health indicator<br />D:-Nutrition indicator<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question11:-The time spanning between conception and a baby's second birthday<br />which is very crucial<br />A:-Infancy<br />B:-First 1000 days<br />C:-Toddler<br />D:-Childhood<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question12:-This scoring system provides a standardized assessment for infants<br />after delivery<br />A:-Apgar score<br />B:-IUGR score<br />C:-Z score<br />D:-SD score<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question13:-DHA supplement in prenatal stage is important for<br />A:-Muscle development<br />B:-Bone development<br />C:-Brain development<br />D:-Vision development<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question14:-Extra calories required by the lactating women on a daily basis<br />A:-800<br />B:-200<br />C:-300<br />D:-500<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question15:-It is important to breast feed the neonate<br />A:-For muscle growth<br />B:-Fat deposit<br />C:-To gain weight<br />D:-To boost immunity<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question16:-This stimulates the Oxytocin release<br />A:-Suckling of the baby<br />B:-Prolactin release<br />C:-Pituitary release<br />D:-Making a fist by the baby<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question17:-The food that should be restricted during pregnancy?<br />A:-Chocolate<br />B:-Crab and Fish<br />C:-Ice cream<br />D:-Rum and wine<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question18:-Healthy snacks for Pre school children<br />A:-Burger<br />B:-Potatoes chips<br />C:-Steamed banana<br />D:-Wafers<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question19:-Pair below works together to help build up the bones of a developing<br />baby<br />A:-Vitamin A and Calcium<br />B:-Vitamin B and Calcium<br />C:-Vitamin D and Calcium<br />D:-Vitamin C and Calcium<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question20:-An index that correlates with total body fat content or percent body<br />fat, and is acceptable measure of adiposity or body fatness in children and adults.<br />A:-HI<br />B:-BMI<br />C:-BMR<br />D:-MUC<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question21:-ABCDE in community Nutrition means<br />A:-Anthropometry, Bioinformatics, Clinical, Dietary and Economical<br />B:-Anthropometry, Biophysical, Clinical, Dietary and Economical<br />C:-Anthropometry, Biological Economical, Clinical, Dietary and Economical<br />D:-Anthropometry, Biochemical, Clinical, Dietary and Economical<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question22:-Anthropometry is classified into two types<br />A:-Static and Diplomatic<br />B:-State and Dynamic<br />C:-Static and Dynamic<br />D:-Still and Dynamic<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question23:-What is the primary method of dietary assessment used in<br />epidemiological studies?<br />A:-Diet recall<br />B:-Diet history<br />C:-Food frequency questionnaire<br />D:-Food intake interview<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question24:-Calculate the body mass index (BMI) for a patient whose height is 1.75<br />m and whose weight is 99 kg.<br />A:-42<br />B:-52<br />C:-62<br />D:-32<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question25:-A common anthropometric measure for infants is:<br />A:-Recumbent length<br />B:-Head circumference<br />C:-Skin fold<br />D:-Biceps<br />Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled<br />Question26:-Which of the following is the most frequently used anthorpometric<br />measure to estimate body mass?<br />A:-Body weight<br />B:-Body volume<br />C:-Skin fold<br />D:-Head circumference<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question27:-Data from FAO food balance sheets can be used to determine<br />A:-Daily food consumption at an individual level<br />B:-Daily food consumption at a national level<br />C:-Daily food availability for consumption at a national level<br />D:-None of the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question28:-Which one of the following methods is a prospective method of dietary<br />assessment?<br />A:-Weighed food record<br />B:-24 Hour dietary recall<br />C:-Diet history<br />D:-FFQ<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question29:-Duties of a dietician includes<br />A:-Creating healthy and nutritious diets for patients<br />B:-Advising eating healthy food<br />C:-Monitoring eating habits and diets of individual, family members or both<br />D:-All of the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question30:-This diet is a structured eating plan that restricts daily caloric intake,<br />commonly for weight loss.<br />A:-Low calorie diet<br />B:-High protein diet<br />C:-High calorie diet<br />D:-Keto diet<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question31:-Food to be avoided by an obese person<br />A:-Leafy vegetables<br />B:-Fruits<br />C:-Red meat<br />D:-Milk<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question32:-The food that in the past people would get by hunting and gathering is<br />also known as<br />A:-Paleo diet<br />B:-Feingold diet<br />C:-Adams diet<br />D:-Paste diet<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question33:-A process by which a health professional with special training in<br />nutrition helps people make healthy food choices and form healthy eating habits<br />A:-Food counselling<br />B:-Nutrition training<br />C:-Nutrition counselling<br />D:-Balanced diet<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question34:-The method of feeding via the gastro intestinal track<br />A:-Parental feeding<br />B:-Enternal feeding<br />C:-Breast feeding<br />D:-Bottle feeding<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question35:-An eating pattern that cycles between periods of fasting and eating<br />A:-Fasting diet<br />B:-Intermitted fasting<br />C:-30 days diet<br />D:-Healthy diet<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question36:-A diet for weight loss<br />A:-Ketogenic diet<br />B:-Feingold diet<br />C:-GFCF diet<br />D:-DASH diet<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question37:-This survey is done to assess the quantities of food items and nutrients<br />consumed by the family<br />A:-Diet record<br />B:-Nutri survey<br />C:-Food records<br />D:-Family diet survey<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question38:-To assess the food intake at institutional level there are two methods<br />A:-Inventory method and actual weighment method<br />B:-Institution method and survey method<br />C:-Inventory method and non inventory method<br />D:-Weighment method and non weighment method<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question39:-One of the aetiology of peptic ulcer<br />A:-Stress<br />B:-High calorie food<br />C:-High protein food<br />D:-Low calorie food<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question40:-Pathological changes may follow damage to the liver<br />A:-Fatty infiltration<br />B:-Necrosis<br />C:-Cirrhosis<br />D:-All of the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question41:-What is the full form of "INSIMP"?<br />A:-Intensive Millets Promotion<br />B:-Indian Millets Promotion<br />C:-Intensive Millets Protection<br />D:-Indian Millets Protection<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question42:-Name the millet nutrient that lowers cholesterol<br />A:-Vitamin C<br />B:-Biotin<br />C:-Niacin<br />D:-Vitamin A<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question43:-Who is considered as Father of Green Revolution in the World?<br />A:-William S Gaud<br />B:-Norman Borlaug<br />C:-M.S. Swaminathan<br />D:-John Bennet Lawes<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question44:-The national prophylaxis program against nutritional blindness is being<br />implemented in the country since<br />A:-1970<br />B:-1983<br />C:-1986<br />D:-1980<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question45:-What impact does globalisation have on food security?<br />A:-Globalisation truly has no impact on food security because agriculture is not<br />covered by World Trade Organisation rules.<br />B:-Developing countries need to create publicly owned food reserves in order<br />to realise the potential benefits.<br />C:-The only place where food and agriculture have seen globalisation so far is<br />supermarkets.<br />D:-Developing nations find it challenging to benefit from the potential of<br />globalisation for enhancing food security because of subsidies and trade restrictions<br />from wealthy nations.<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question46:-In the NFHS-4 following information have been added?<br />A:-Migration in the context of HIV<br />B:-Abortion<br />C:-Malaria prevention<br />D:-All of the above<br />Correct Answer:- Option-D<br />Question47:-Which states are called as Goiter belt in India?<br />A:-Uttar Pradesh along the belt of Himalayas<br />B:-Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh<br />C:-Coastal areas of Karnataka and Kerala<br />D:-Coastal belts of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh<br />Correct Answer:- Option-A<br />Question48:-First formal National Health Policy was formulated in<br />A:-1999<br />B:-1985<br />C:-1983<br />D:-2000<br />Correct Answer:- Option-C<br />Question49:-Under ICDS which of the following services are not delivered through<br />the Anganwadi center?<br />A:-Growth monitoring<br />B:-Sports training to children below 5 year<br />C:-Nutritional supplement<br />D:-Pre-school education<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B<br />Question50:-Gomez classification of PEM is based on<br />A:-Height for age<br />B:-Weight for age<br />C:-Weight for height<br />D:-Mid arm circumference<br />Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><h3 style="text-align: left;">Nutrition Officer Recruitment Exam Question Paper part 2</h3><p> </p>Sanjuhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/07750509656792324904noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-75798649899703844242023-07-18T00:13:00.004-07:002023-07-18T00:13:52.478-07:00GK Question Paper 2023- Useful for all Exam -Part 1<h2 style="text-align: left;">GK Question Paper 2023- Useful for all Exam -Part 1</h2><div>The 50 GK Questions useful for all Examination which consist of GK part. There are 25 Questions in Part 1 and 25 Questions in Part 2. If you know the answer please answer in comment box below, we will provide answer in <a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com">https://www.questionpapersdownload.com</a> </div><p>Q.1. What are the Gurjarrs caste in Rajasthan fighting for ?</p><p>(A) for SC status (B) for OBC status</p><p>(C) for ST status (D) None of these</p><p>Q.2. What is the restriction on number of times of medical examination of a worker under Workmen’s</p><p>Compensation Act in the first month following the accident ?</p><p>(A) 1 time (B) 2 times (C) 3 times (D) 4 times</p><p>Q.3. What is expansion of UNICEF ?</p><p>(A) United Nations International Childrens’Emergency Fund</p><p>(B) Union of National Integrity, Cultural & Educational Fund</p><p>(C) United Nations International Cultural & Economical Fund</p><p>(D) None of these</p><p>Q.4. BARC is situated at:</p><p>(A) Chennai (B) Trombay (C) Bangalore (D) Hyderabad</p><p>Q.5. RTI Act received the assent of President of India on:</p><p>(A) 15th June 2005 (B) 19th June 2005 (C) 14th Jan 2006 (D) 30th Dec 2006</p><p>Q.6. What kVA rating is required for a transformer that must handle a maximum load current of 8 A with a secondary voltage of 2 kV?</p><p>(A) 4 kVA (B) 0.25 kVA (C) 16 kVA (D)8 kVA</p><p>Q.7. PIO under RTI Act means:</p><p>(A) Public Information Officer (B) Personnel Information Officer (C) Private Investigating Officer (D) Public Investigating Officer</p><p>Q.8. RTI Act came into force on:</p><p>(A) 15th Dec 2005 (B) 12th Jan 2006 (C) 12th Oct 2005 (D) 18th July 2006</p><p>Q.9.In a Y-Y source/load configuration, the?</p><p>(A) phase current, the line current, and the load current are all equal in each phase</p><p>(B) hase current, the line current, and the load current are 120° out of phase</p><p>(C) phase current and the line current are in phase, and both are 120° out of phase with the load current</p><p>(D) line current and the load current are in phase, and both are out of phase with the phase current</p><p>Q.10.The part of a bevel protractor, which comes in contact with the inclined surface while measuring, is the?</p><p>(A) Stock (B) Dial (C) Disc (D)Blade</p><h4 style="background-color: white; color: #25a186; font-family: "Open Sans", sans-serif; font-stretch: normal; font-variant-east-asian: normal; font-variant-numeric: normal; line-height: 1.33333; margin: 0px; text-align: left;"><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2015/11/spoken-english-question-paper.html" style="background: transparent; color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; font-stretch: normal; font-variant-east-asian: normal; font-variant-numeric: normal; line-height: 1.33333; text-decoration-line: none;"><span style="font-size: medium;">SPOKEN ENGLISH QUESTION PAPER</span></a></h4><p>Q.11. The Thevenin equivalent voltage is?</p><p>(A) equal to the source voltage (B) the same as the load voltage (C) the open circuit voltage (D) none of the above</p><p>Q.12 The point angle of a drill suitable for drilling thin plates is?</p><p>(A) 90 deg (B) 120 deg (C) 180 deg (D) None of above</p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi0N2QO3JU7TSzKYGemjTUvW-pMSMHHQyzc3hCLAIzgkn7oWk8YKhP0VrOFJZJy1dpo-DgOpSWfWuKEOf2ZBSsdMNTMy1Qjw0x_0W-w9-t7zFie7xZPXfYc1uvbiyLgaJQCnGh-4keLSUh-zmmIYSvAcFqQe2fHhSjlwbtqXzF2p0U6dzLw8AAIxOfKEZX8/s600/GK%20Question%20Paper%202023-%20Useful%20for%20all%20Exam%20-Part%201.jpg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="GK Question Paper 2023- Useful for all Exam -Part 1" border="0" data-original-height="345" data-original-width="600" height="230" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi0N2QO3JU7TSzKYGemjTUvW-pMSMHHQyzc3hCLAIzgkn7oWk8YKhP0VrOFJZJy1dpo-DgOpSWfWuKEOf2ZBSsdMNTMy1Qjw0x_0W-w9-t7zFie7xZPXfYc1uvbiyLgaJQCnGh-4keLSUh-zmmIYSvAcFqQe2fHhSjlwbtqXzF2p0U6dzLw8AAIxOfKEZX8/w400-h230/GK%20Question%20Paper%202023-%20Useful%20for%20all%20Exam%20-Part%201.jpg" title="GK Question Paper 2023- Useful for all Exam -Part 1" width="400" /></a></div><p>Q.13. Who was the first President of India:</p><p>(A) Dr. Sarbopalli Radha Krishnan (B) Fakaruddin Ali Ahmed (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) N. Sanjiva Reddy</p><p>Q.14. Who won Miss Universe 2007 pageant ?</p><p>(A) Miss Puja Gupta (B) Miss Riyo Mori (C) Miss Allena Hanoi (D) Miss Patricia Mair</p><p>Q.15. Constitution of India was adopted and enacted on:</p><p>(A) 26th Jan 1947 (B) 26th Jan 1948 (C) 26th Jan 1949 (D) 26th Jan 1950</p><p>Q.16. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 relates to which aspect of the constitutional provision:</p><p>(A) Fundamental Rights & Directive principles (B) Equality before law (C) Creation of new state (D) Duty & responsibility of state</p><p>Q.17. Article 24 of the Constitution “prohibits employment of children in factories, etc.” below the age of:</p><p>(A) 18 years (B) 22 years (C) 14 years (D) 12 years</p><p>Q 18. If two currents are in the same direction at any instant of time in a given branch of a circuit, the net current at that instant?</p><p>(A) is zero</p><p>(B) is the sum of the two currents</p><p>(C) is the difference between the two currents</p><p>(D) cannot be determined</p><h4 style="background-color: white; color: #25a186; font-family: "Open Sans", sans-serif; font-stretch: normal; font-variant-east-asian: normal; font-variant-numeric: normal; line-height: 1.33333; margin: 0px; text-align: left;"><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/07/gk-question-answers-for-download.html" style="background: transparent; color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; font-stretch: normal; font-variant-east-asian: normal; font-variant-numeric: normal; line-height: 1.33333; text-decoration-line: none;"><span style="font-size: medium;">GK QUESTION ANSWERS FOR DOWNLOAD</span></a></h4><p>Q.19. Which article gives special status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir in the Constitution?</p><p>Q.20. RTI Act extends to the whole of India except:</p><p>(A) Sikkim (B) Goa, Daman & Diu (C) Andaman & Nicobar (D) Jammu & Kashmir</p><p>Q.21. 14.A certain transformer has a turns ratio of 1 and a 0.85 coefficient of coupling. When 2 V ac is</p><p>applied to the primary, the secondary voltage is?</p><p>(A) 1.7 V (B) 0.85 V (C) 1 V (D) 0 V</p><p>Q.22. 150th Anniversary of Armed Uprising (Sepoy Mutiny) in Indian Army against the British Emperor was celebrated in:</p><p>(A) April 2007 (B) May 2007 (C) Aug. 2006 (D) Aug. 2007</p><p>Q.23. When did “The Workmen’s Compensation Act” came into force ?</p><p>(A) 15th March 1922 (B) 28th Dec 1923 (C) 5th March 1923 (D) 1st July 1924</p><p>Q.24. Following legal establishment decide the legality & justifiability of a strike:</p><p>(A) Industrial Tribunal (B) High Court</p><p>(C) Central Administrative Tribunal (D) Session Court</p><h2 class="post-title entry-title" style="background-color: white; border-bottom-style: solid; border-bottom-width: 5px; border-color: var(--dynamico--title-color); box-sizing: inherit; clear: both; color: var(--dynamico--title-color); font-family: var(--dynamico--title-font); font-size: 1.375rem; font-weight: var(--dynamico--title-font-weight); line-height: var(--dynamico--title-line-height); margin: 0px; overflow-wrap: break-word; padding: 0px 0px 0.5rem;"><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/2023/01/17/frequently-asked-gk-questions-part-3-2023/" rel="bookmark" style="background-color: transparent; box-sizing: inherit; text-decoration-line: none; transition: all 0.15s ease 0s;">Frequently Asked GK Questions Part 3- 2023</a></h2><div class="entry-meta" style="align-items: center; box-sizing: inherit; color: rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.9); display: flex; flex-flow: row wrap; font-family: Ubuntu, arial, helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 0.9375rem; margin: 0px; padding: 0.6rem 1rem;"></div><p>Q.25. Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 does not liable the employer to pay compensation if the</p><p>accident is attributed to:</p><p>(A) The workmen under influence of drinks or drugs</p><p>(B) The workmen has mental worry</p><p>(C) The workmen is suffering from some disease</p><p>(D) The tools & equipments with which the workmen is working is/are defective</p><h4 style="background-color: white; color: #25a186; font-family: "Open Sans", sans-serif; font-stretch: normal; font-variant-east-asian: normal; font-variant-numeric: normal; line-height: 1.33333; margin: 0px; text-align: left;"><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/07/online-exam-questions.html" style="background: transparent; color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; font-stretch: normal; font-variant-east-asian: normal; font-variant-numeric: normal; line-height: 1.33333; text-decoration-line: none;">ONLINE EXAM QUESTIONS</a></h4>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-51016471002818771982023-07-14T03:12:00.001-07:002023-11-16T23:25:04.841-08:00PDO Exam Question Papers- Revision 2023<h2 style="text-align: left;">PDO Exam Question Papers- Revision 2023</h2><div><div>On request of many candidates appearing in the upcoming examination we published some previous question papers and model questions for PDO Examination 2023.</div><div><br /></div><div><div><div><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-exam-questions-24092016.html">PDO EXAM QUESTIONS-2016</a></div><div><br /></div><div><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/kannada-gk-question-2016-17.html">KANNADA GK QUESTION AND ANSWERS-21-09-2016</a></div><div><b> </b></div></div><div><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/rural-development-questions-in-hingi.html">RURAL DEVELOPMENT QUESTIONS IN HINGI AND ENGLISH- 20/09/2016</a></div><div> </div><div><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/panchayath-secretary-exam-question-paper.html">PANCHAYATH SECRETARY EXAM QUESTION PAPER- 16/09/2016</a></div></div><div><div><div><div><p><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-and-panchayath-secretary-exam.html">PDO AND PANCHAYATH SECRETARY EXAM QUESTION IN KANNADA</a></p><p><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-exam-general-knowledge-questions.html">PDO EXAM GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS</a></p><p><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/08/pdo-exam-questions-in-kannada.html">PDO EXAM QUESTIONS IN KANNADA</a></p><p><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-general-kannada-questions.html">PDO GENERAL KANNADA QUESTIONS</a></p><p><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-model-question-paper-2016.html">PDO MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2016</a></p></div><div><p><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/10/karnataka-pdogps-exam-question-answers.html">KARNATAKA PDO/GPS EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS-15/10/2016</a></p></div><div><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/10/pdo-exam-question-answers.html">PDO EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS -13-10-2016</a></div><div><br /></div><div><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/10/panchayath-secretary-exam-questions-13.html">PANCHAYATH SECRETARY EXAM QUESTIONS -13-10-2016</a></div><div> </div></div><div><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/pdo-exam-question-answers-30092016.html">PDO EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS- 30/09/2016</a></div><div><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/panchayath-secretary-exam-question_28.html"><br /></a><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/panchayath-secretary-exam-question_28.html">PANCHAYATH SECRETARY EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS-28/08/2016</a></div></div><div><b> </b></div><div><a href="http://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/09/karnataka-pdo-exam-questions-in-kannada.html">KARNATAKA PDO EXAM QUESTIONS IN KANNADA-27/09/2016</a></div><div><b> </b></div><div><br /></div></div><div> </div></div><div><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/p/blog-page_10.html">Rural Development and Panchayath Raj Question Paper 2017- Click here</a></div><div> </div><div>General Knowledge, General Kannada, General English Question paper of PDO Exam published here</div><h4>PDO Question Paper General Knowledge, General Kannada,English_page-0001 <strong><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2022/11/PDO-Question-Paper-General-Knowledge-General-KannadaEnglish.pdf">PDO Question Paper General Knowledge, General Kannada,General English pdf</a> </strong></h4>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-88613979664757494282022-11-03T21:36:00.001-07:002022-11-03T21:36:03.541-07:00Offset Printing Machine Operator Exam 50 Questions with Answer- Part 2<h2 style="text-align: left;">Offset Printing Machine Operator Exam 50 Questions with Answer- Part 2</h2><div>The Recruitment of Offset Printing Machine Operator process will be carried out with competative examination, the Exam consist of 100 Nos Questions Related to Offset Printing and General Knowledge. here we published 50 Question of Offset Printing Machine Operator Examination conducted by KPSC. The Part 1 Question consisting 50 questions also available at <a href="https://rightjobalert.com/category/question-papers/">www.rightjobalert.com Question Papers Section</a></div><div><h3 style="text-align: left;">Offset Printing Machine Operator Exam Question with Answer</h3></div><p>Question51:-For multicolour printing, different types of web offset presses are used. The type of offset press which has several plate cylinders positioned around a single large diameter</p><p>cylinder is known as</p><p> A:-Common impression cylinder press</p><p> B:-Blanket to blanket press</p><p> C:-In-line press</p><p> D:-Tower press</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question52:-The type of ink that are usually used for printing on dark coloured papers. This type ink will prevent the colour of the substrate from influencing the ink colour.</p><p> A:-Magnetic ink</p><p> B:-Opaque ink</p><p> C:-Fluorescent ink</p><p> D:-Soy ink</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question53:-The device used for measuring the hardness of a rubber blanket is</p><p> A:-Rockwell hardness tester</p><p> B:-Sceleroscope</p><p> C:-Shore durometer</p><p> D:-Forcemeter</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question54:-One of the parts given below is not a part of gravure printing unit.</p><p> A:-Printing cylinder</p><p> B:-Doctor blade</p><p> C:-Impression cylinder</p><p> D:-Blanket cylinder</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question55:-A leading Indian offset machine manufacturer</p><p> A:-Heidelberg</p><p> B:-Komori</p><p> C:-AB Dick</p><p> D:-HMT</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question56:-The type of offset press which are typically used for long run works including the printing of large daily newspapers.</p><p> A:-Sheet-fed presses</p><p> B:-Web presses</p><p> C:-Two cylinder presses</p><p> D:-Three cylinder presses</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question57:-The conventional manual plate processing techniques have been largely replaced by this technique which is capable of automatic imaging and processing different plate</p><p>materials.</p><p> A:-CTP</p><p> B:-RIP</p><p> C:-CMS</p><p> D:-CMM</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question58:-The inking roller in an offset press, which is in direct contact with the plate cylinder.</p><p> A:-Ductor roller</p><p> B:-Distribution roller</p><p> C:-Fountain roller</p><p> D:-Form roller</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question59:-One of the methods used to prepare a printing cylinder in gravure printing</p><p> A:-Laser beam engraving</p><p> B:-Solvothermal process</p><p> C:-Interfacial polymerisation</p><p> D:-Controlled condensation</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question60:-'Printing with Master' is also known as</p><p> A:-Impact printing</p><p> B:-Non-impact printing</p><p> C:-Ink-jet printing</p><p> D:-Computer to print</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question61:-We must be careful about the storage of paper due to its hygroscopic nature. The store room should be with a</p><p> A:-High relative humidity</p><p> B:-Low relative humidity</p><p> C:-Moderate relative humidity</p><p> D:-High temperature</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question62:-A sheet fed offset printing machine will have four units. From the given below options pick out the one that is not a unit of offset machine.</p><p> A:-Registration unit</p><p> B:-Feeding unit</p><p> C:-Delivery unit</p><p> D:-Colour management unit</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question63:-ISO or International Paper Sizes are denoted in</p><p> A:-Centimeters</p><p> B:-Millimeters</p><p> C:-Inches</p><p> D:-Meters</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question64:-Screen printing stencils can be prepared using different methods. The stencil which is most suited for an image with complex and high quality line details.</p><p> A:-Hand cut stencils</p><p> B:-Tusche and glue stencils</p><p> C:-Photographic stencils</p><p> D:-Cylindrical screens</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question65:-In flexographic printing press there is a metal or ceramic roller engraved with cells that carry ink</p><p> A:-Plate cylinder</p><p> B:-Fountain roller</p><p> C:-Impression cylinder</p><p> D:-Anilox roller</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question66:-Presses that can print more than one colour during a single pass are referred to as multicolour presses. It will have</p><p> A:-a single printing unit</p><p> B:-a series of single printing units</p><p> C:-only a series of single plate cylinders</p><p> D:-only a series of single blanket cylinders</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question67:-The system in an offset press which moisten the plate consistently throughout the press run</p><p> A:-Inking system</p><p> B:-Dampening system</p><p> C:-Distribution system</p><p> D:-Roller system</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question68:-When compared to gravure printing ink, screen printing ink is</p><p> A:-Thinner</p><p> B:-Thicker</p><p> C:-Same viscosity</p><p> D:-Same dimensional stability</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question69:-The best printing method for 'high quality', 'short run', 'customized' colour printing</p><p> A:-Gravure printing</p><p> B:-Flexographic printing</p><p> C:-Digital printing</p><p> D:-Letterpress printing</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question70:-Papers with different quality are available in the market. Shelf life and print quality are considered in categorising the paper. Pick out the lowest grade paper.</p><p> A:-Newsprint</p><p> B:-Bond paper</p><p> C:-Cover paper</p><p> D:-Book paper</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question71:-All preparation from mounting the image carrier on the press to obtain an acceptable image on the press sheet is</p><p> A:-Make ready</p><p> B:-Casting out</p><p> C:-Estimation</p><p> D:-Job schedule</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question72:-The sheets of same weight and surface finish as the final sheet that are used for initial press set up is termed as</p><p> A:-Packing sheets</p><p> B:-Make ready sheets</p><p> C:-Masking sheets</p><p> D:-Proofing sheet</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B.</p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEg_tkpSRDxE6ak0bOIBBfgFHDhEZM8Dnrxe7ErCHbIAXOL-lCKgb9yCrd-C1yEe29xoFp4rtFesutwvKi0_9fZUeApidinzRg28uLdrAqdbWRyqpgFeHMXCfs0vheHgVWJdCVLRCyG0ReTUQtrDxpp1WsNDOn_DOD-Dxxw9ol9em9Sz2rk7-25oqKn-gQ/s600/Offset%20Printing%20Machine%20Operator%20Exam%2050%20Questions%20with%20Answer-%20Part%202.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="Offset Printing Machine Operator Exam 50 Questions with Answer- Part 2" border="0" data-original-height="300" data-original-width="600" height="200" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEg_tkpSRDxE6ak0bOIBBfgFHDhEZM8Dnrxe7ErCHbIAXOL-lCKgb9yCrd-C1yEe29xoFp4rtFesutwvKi0_9fZUeApidinzRg28uLdrAqdbWRyqpgFeHMXCfs0vheHgVWJdCVLRCyG0ReTUQtrDxpp1WsNDOn_DOD-Dxxw9ol9em9Sz2rk7-25oqKn-gQ/w400-h200/Offset%20Printing%20Machine%20Operator%20Exam%2050%20Questions%20with%20Answer-%20Part%202.png" title="Offset Printing Machine Operator Exam 50 Questions with Answer- Part 2" width="400" /></a></div><p>Question73:-Name of the feeder that works on front separation principle</p><p> A:-Stream feeder</p><p> B:-Single sheet feeder</p><p> C:-Continuous feeder</p><p> D:-Alternate feeder</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question74:-Name of the rollers found in an Offset machine, which are in direct contact with printing plate</p><p> A:-Dandy roller</p><p> B:-Ductor roller</p><p> C:-Form roller</p><p> D:-Dwell roller</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question75:-Which of the following statement is/are correct about Auto Plate loading ?</p><p> i) Plate changeover can take place on all printing unit at the same time.</p><p> ii) The operator has to lift the guard and put the lead edge of the plate in to the clamp.</p><p>iii) No operator related error will occur.</p><p> A:-Only (ii and iii)</p><p> B:-Only (i and iii)</p><p> C:-All the above (i, ii and iii)</p><p> D:-Only (i and ii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question77:-Any particle that sticks to the blanket or plate that transfers an imperfection to the printed page is called</p><p> A:-Chalking</p><p> B:-Pilling</p><p> C:-Hickies</p><p> D:-Ghosting</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question78:-Which of the following is/are causes the printing problem "Blinding" in offset printing ?</p><p> i) Excess gum in fountain solution</p><p> ii) Excess fountain rollers</p><p>iii) Fountain solution too acidic</p><p> A:-Only (i and ii)</p><p> B:-Only (ii and iii)</p><p> C:-All of the above (i, ii and iii)</p><p> D:-Only (i and iii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question79:-Choose the remedies to rectify the printing problem "Tinting" ?</p><p> i) Check the pH of fountain solution</p><p> ii) Add varnish to increase tack</p><p>iii) Use moisture resistant stock</p><p> A:-Only (i and iii)</p><p> B:-Only (i and ii)</p><p> C:-All the above (i, ii and iii)</p><p> D:-Only (ii and iii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question80:-The failure of the rollers to transport ink is generally known as</p><p> A:-Swelling</p><p> B:-Ghosting</p><p> C:-Mottling</p><p> D:-Glazing</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question81:-The deposit of unwanted, excess ink and paper residue on either the plate or blanket is</p><p> A:-Piling</p><p> B:-Slurring</p><p> C:-Tinting</p><p> D:-Setoff</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question82:-A quality control device used to indicate dot reproduction of half tones and process colours</p><p> A:-Gray balance patch</p><p> B:-Screen finder</p><p> C:-Dot gain scale</p><p> D:-Star target</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question83:-Which of the following statement is/are correct about cloth joint end paper ?</p><p> i) The cloth joint end paper has one waste sheet, two paste down sheets, one stiff leaf, and two fly leaf.</p><p> ii) Three folded sheets are used to prepare one cloth joint end paper.</p><p> iii) This end paper is sewn with the book as first and last section.</p><p> A:-Only (ii and iii)</p><p> B:-Only (i and ii)</p><p> C:-All the above (i, ii and iii)</p><p> D:-Only (i and iii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question84:-All the operation after sewing up to covering is called</p><p> A:-Ware housing</p><p> B:-Covering</p><p> C:-Finishing</p><p> D:-Forwarding</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question85:-The process of binding the writing material is called</p><p> A:-Letter press binding</p><p> B:-Library binding</p><p> C:-Stationery binding</p><p> D:-Miscellaneous binding</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question86:-Which of the following is/are correct about Gauffering ?</p><p> i) Solid gilt edges are cut in to different patterns.</p><p> ii) The book is kept under a weight board, golden colour is applied with a brush evenly through the edges.</p><p>iii) Gauffering is done with small hot tools.</p><p> A:-Only (ii and iii)</p><p> B:-Only (i and ii)</p><p> C:-All of the above (i, ii and iii)</p><p> D:-Only (i and iii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question87:-Calculate the quantity of paper in reams for making 15,000 books of Demy octavo size. Each book contains 480 pages. Double demy paper is used for the production of</p><p>books.</p><p> A:-400</p><p> B:-450</p><p> C:-500</p><p> D:-425</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question88:-Name of the paper folding machine that operates by forcing a sheet between two rollers and causing it to curve</p><p> A:-Knife folder</p><p> B:-Parallel folder</p><p> C:-Buckle folder</p><p> D:-Accordion folder</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question89:-Which of the following statement is/are correct about foil stamping ?</p><p>i) The process that create a three-dimensional raised image on substrate by pressing it between two dies.</p><p>ii) It is a letter press process that transfers a thin layer of metallic tone to a substrate using heat and pressure.</p><p>iii) The relief image presses against the foil and the combination of heat and pressure transfers the metallic coating on the foil film to substrate.</p><p> A:-Only (i and ii)</p><p> B:-Only (ii and iii)</p><p> C:-All of the above (i, ii and iii)</p><p> D:-Only (i and iii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question90:-A process in which a thin film of plastic with an adhesive coating is bonded to a printed substrate is called</p><p> A:-Varnishing</p><p> B:-Stamping</p><p> C:-Lamination</p><p> D:-Embossing</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question91:-Which of the following statement is/are correct about head band in book binding ?</p><p>i) An open weave cotton cloth for good adhesive penetration, pasted the ends of book.</p><p>ii) Head bands were used by book binders to align book signatures and strengthen the ends of a book.</p><p>iii) Head banding is done by the sewing a cord on to the backbone behind the boards, which secures the signatures together more firmly.</p><p> A:-Only (i and iii)</p><p> B:-Only (i and ii)</p><p> C:-All of the above (i, ii and iii)</p><p> D:-Only (ii and iii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question92:-Which of the following statement is/are correct about Blister packs ?</p><p>i) The blister is adhered on to a printed paper board backing on which the product information is displayed.</p><p>ii) When heat is applied, it shrinks tightly over whatever it is covering.</p><p>iii) Double blisters are formed around both sides of product allowing for complete product visibility.</p><p> A:-Only (i and ii)</p><p> B:-Only (i and iii)</p><p> C:-All of the above (i, ii and iii)</p><p> D:-Only (ii and iii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question93:-Name of the wave shaped structure that provides strength to reinforced corrugated board</p><p> A:-Flute</p><p> B:-Pipe</p><p> C:-Bubble</p><p> D:-Shrink</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question94:-A material made up of polymer plastic film, when heat is applied, it contracts tightly over whatever it is covering is called</p><p> A:-Bubble wrap</p><p> B:-Shrink wrap</p><p> C:-Blister wrap</p><p> D:-Vacuum pouch</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question95:-Photo chemical engraved or etched plates are used is ___________ type of printing process.</p><p> A:-Gravure</p><p> B:-Flexo</p><p> C:-Screen</p><p> D:-Lithography</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question96:-Which of the following statement is/are correct about diode ?</p><p> i) Diode is an electronic device that restricts current flow chiefly to one direction.</p><p> ii) Diode is a passive electronic component used to make a time delay in a circuit.</p><p>iii) Diodes are some times used as rectifiers.</p><p> A:-Only (i and ii)</p><p> B:-Only (i and iii)</p><p> C:-All of the above (i, ii and iii)</p><p> D:-Only (ii and iii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-B</p><p>Question97:-Name an electrical component that limits or regulates the flow of electrical current in an electronic circuit.</p><p> A:-Capacitor</p><p> B:-Diode</p><p> C:-Resistor</p><p> D:-Transformer</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-C</p><p>Question98:-The most common type of gears and have straight teeth and are parallel to the axis of the wheel</p><p> A:-Spur gear</p><p> B:-Worm gear</p><p> C:-Bevel gear</p><p> D:-Helical gear</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><p>Question99:-Which of the following statement is/are correct about Hydraulics ?</p><p>i) Hydraulic systems are commonly powered by compressed air.</p><p>ii) Hydraulics deals with the mechanical properties of fluid.</p><p>iii) The major components that make up a hydraulic system are the reservoir, pump, valves and actuators.</p><p> A:-Only (i and ii)</p><p> B:-Only (i and iii)</p><p> C:-All of the above (i, ii and iii)</p><p> D:-Only (ii and iii)</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-D</p><p>Question 100:-Identify the neutral colour from the following.</p><p> A:-Grey</p><p> B:-Violet</p><p> C:-Purple</p><p> D:-Yellow</p><p> Correct Answer:- Option-A</p><h3>Offset Printing Machine Operator Exam Question with Answer- Part 1 Click here</h3><div><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2022/09/available-question-papers.html" style="background: rgb(255, 255, 255); color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; font-family: Lora, serif; font-size: 20px; outline: 0px; text-decoration-line: none;"><b> List of Recently Published Question Papers</b></a></div>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com1tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-10552344036847337892022-10-10T03:45:00.003-07:002022-10-10T03:45:40.606-07:00Political Science Social Studies Mathematics Music Malayalam and Kannada Assistant Profession Recruitment Exam Descriptive Question Paper<h2 style="text-align: left;">Political Science Social Studies Mathematics Music Malayalam and Kannada Assistant Profession Recruitment Exam Descriptive Question Paper 2021 -2022</h2><div>Download Political Science Social Studies Mathematics Music Malayalam and Kannada Assistant Profession Recruitment Exam Descriptive Question Paper using following download links</div><div><br /></div><div><a href="https://www.keralapsc.gov.in/node/33657" hreflang="en" style="background-attachment: initial; background-clip: initial; background-image: initial; background-origin: initial; background-position: initial; background-repeat: initial; background-size: initial; border-bottom: 0px solid rgb(204, 204, 204); box-sizing: border-box; color: chocolate; font-size: 15px; font-weight: 600; text-decoration-line: none;">Assistant Professor-Social Studies</a><p style="box-sizing: border-box; margin: 0px;">Assistant Professor-Social Studies</p><a class="down-link" href="https://www.keralapsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/2022-06/question_paper_asst_prof_social_studies.pdf" style="background-attachment: initial; background-clip: initial; background-image: initial; background-origin: initial; background-position: initial; background-repeat: initial; background-size: initial; box-sizing: border-box; color: chocolate; font-size: 15px; text-decoration-line: none;" target="_blank">Download</a> 2022 Question Paper</div><div><br /></div><div><a href="https://www.keralapsc.gov.in/node/33536" hreflang="en" 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target="_blank">Download</a> 2021 Question Paper</div><div><p><a href="https://www.keralapsc.gov.in/node/33666" hreflang="en" style="background-attachment: initial; background-clip: initial; background-image: initial; background-origin: initial; background-position: initial; background-repeat: initial; background-size: initial; border-bottom: 0px solid rgb(204, 204, 204); box-sizing: border-box; color: chocolate; font-size: 15px; font-weight: 600; text-decoration-line: none;">Assistant Professor - Music</a></p><p style="box-sizing: border-box; margin: 0px;">Assistant Professor - Music</p><a class="down-link" href="https://www.keralapsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/2022-06/question_paper_assistant_professor_music.pdf" style="background-attachment: initial; background-clip: initial; background-image: initial; background-origin: initial; background-position: initial; background-repeat: initial; background-size: initial; box-sizing: border-box; color: chocolate; font-size: 15px; text-decoration-line: none;" target="_blank">Download</a> 2022 Question Paper</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEihS_phAMRDhnhsIkgNsBXow8l_GybXARS-pZgjZaoVX6sXKbqy9kvdr30kWJwIMpnMpy6XKb0hiW7SnGhnheSyEYCf2LYw8Q8JDnxfDXSI7jH15eX903CF1vhFiGzCF6yAs7aDBlQzWT6Vob5DnMRN_9q3VtARutNGDm8lnf-OJyylrjpoZlfZfy01dw/s600/Political%20Science%20Social%20Studies%20Mathematics%20Music%20Malayalam%20and%20Kannada%20Assistant%20Profession%20Recruitment%20Exam%20Descriptive%20Question%20Paper.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="Political Science Social Studies Mathematics Music Malayalam and Kannada Assistant Profession Recruitment Exam Descriptive Question Paper" border="0" data-original-height="300" data-original-width="600" height="200" 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href="https://rightjobalert.com/category/question-papers/">https://rightjobalert.com/category/question-papers/</a></div>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-77342675195920695552022-09-16T09:03:00.008-07:002022-09-16T09:06:54.413-07:00FIRST YEAR B.SC NURSING QUESTION PAPERS DOWNLOAD<p>FIRST YEAR B.SC NURSING QUESTION PAPERS DOWNLOAD</p><p>The First Year B.Sc Nursing Question papers of T&TV Institute of Nursing is listed below, You may also find other Nursing Question Papers at <a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/search/label/B.Sc%20Nursing%20Question%20Papers">www.questionpapersdownload.com</a><br /></p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi_SWdblCZxeSkaALx6PKyjlvIl522PxSwMlQFZjCv4fxyc__Mam0v-8powWOvPLC_HV8nmX7TIHi03ZOpaizuXwYl2cqX-5mEpI3ron2mY14TMTOidkvd0YvdaiyDM38gBKfT3RMrrvjyKxQX3FId7PZ6-O3Tfbr4dVGw8rBXoxzyGeaG_UBmHhpKyZg/s831/FIRST%20YEAR%20B.SC%20NURSING%20QUESTION%20PAPERS%20DOWNLOAD.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="FIRST YEAR B.SC NURSING QUESTION PAPERS DOWNLOAD" border="0" data-original-height="510" data-original-width="831" height="196" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi_SWdblCZxeSkaALx6PKyjlvIl522PxSwMlQFZjCv4fxyc__Mam0v-8powWOvPLC_HV8nmX7TIHi03ZOpaizuXwYl2cqX-5mEpI3ron2mY14TMTOidkvd0YvdaiyDM38gBKfT3RMrrvjyKxQX3FId7PZ6-O3Tfbr4dVGw8rBXoxzyGeaG_UBmHhpKyZg/w320-h196/FIRST%20YEAR%20B.SC%20NURSING%20QUESTION%20PAPERS%20DOWNLOAD.png" title="FIRST YEAR B.SC NURSING QUESTION PAPERS DOWNLOAD" width="320" /></a></div><br /><p><br /></p><table><tbody><tr><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">1</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">English</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center"><p><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/02/1st-B.Sc-Eng-2021-1.pdf" title="http://December 2021">December 2021</a></p><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/JULY-2019_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" style="font-family: inherit; font-size: revert; font-weight: inherit;" target="_blank">August 2019</a><p><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/english-2018-july_compressed_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">July 2018</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.inwp-content/uploads/2022/01/2017_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank" title="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/2017_1stBSE.pdf">June 2017</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/2017_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">July 2016</a></p> </td></tr><tr><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">2</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">Anatomy & Physiology</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center"> <p><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/02/1st-AnatomtPhysio2021.pdf">December 2021</a></p><p><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/august-2019_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">August 2019</a></p><p><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/july2018-anatomy_compressed_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank" title="http://ttvnursing.vizibil.net/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/july2018-anatomy_compressed_1stBSE.pdf">July 2018</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/june-2017_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">June 2017</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/July-2016-1_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">July 2016</a></p> </td></tr><tr><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">3</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">Nutrition & Biochemistry</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center"><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/02/1st-Nutrition-Bio2021.pdf">December2021</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/august-2019_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">August 2019</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/june-july2018_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">June July 2018</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/may-june-2017_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">May June 2017</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/july2016_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank" title="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2019/09/july2016.pdf">July 2016</a></td></tr><tr><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">4</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">Nursing Foundation</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center"><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/02/1st-B.Sc-Eng-2021-1.pdf">December 2021</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/Fon-2019-aug._compressed_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">August 2019</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/July-2018_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank" title="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2019/10/Fon-2019-aug._compressed.pdf">July 2018</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/june-2017_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank" title="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2019/09/june-2017.pdf">June 2017</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/July-2016-2_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">July 2016</a></td></tr><tr><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">5</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">Psychology</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center"><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/02/1st-B.Sc-Psychology-2021.pdf">december 2021</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/JUly-2018_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">July 2018</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/June-2017-1_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">June 2017</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/July-2016-3_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">July 2016</a></td></tr><tr><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">6</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center">Microbiology</td><td class="has-text-align-center" data-align="center"><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/02/1st-B.Sc-Micro-2021.pdf">december 2021</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/August-2019-2_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">August 2019</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/July-2018_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">July 2018</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/june-2017-1_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">June 2017</a><br /><a href="http://ttvnursing.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/01/July-2016-4_1stBSE.pdf" rel="noreferrer noopener" target="_blank">July 2016</a></td></tr></tbody></table><p> Other Available <a href="https://rightjobalert.com/category/question-papers/">Question papers for download</a> <br /></p>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-18305423380753859832022-09-09T04:58:00.006-07:002022-09-09T05:20:48.069-07:00AVAILABLE QUESTION PAPERS<h2 style="text-align: left;">AVAILABLE QUESTION PAPERS FOR DOWNLOAD</h2><p>The List of Previous Question Papers, Objective type Model Questions and Question paper with Key Answers published here. For easy searching these list of question papers published in this page.<script src="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com//feeds/posts/summary/-/Question Paper?max-results=750&alt=json-in-script&callback=recentpostslist"></script></p><h3 style="text-align: left;">Recently Published Question Papers as on date 09/09/2022:</h3><div>(Note find Question Papers published after above date in home page/ archive of this blog). 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</script><li><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/11/msc-electronic-science-em-may-2015.html" style="background: transparent; color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; text-decoration-line: none;" target="_blank">M.Sc. Electronic Science (E.M.) - May 2015 Question Papers</a></li><li><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/11/msc-applied-psychology-question-papers.html" style="background: transparent; color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; text-decoration-line: none;" target="_blank">M.SC APPLIED PSYCHOLOGY QUESTION PAPERS</a></li><li><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2016/11/ma-population-studies-question-papers.html" style="background: transparent; color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; text-decoration-line: none;" target="_blank">MA POPULATION STUDIES QUESTION PAPERS</a></li></ul><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: left;">Question Paper Published before November 2016 is listed in the blog archive</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: left;">If you find any of the question papers is not opening for download let us know by your comment in the comment section.</div>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-15273993223782892632022-09-09T03:40:00.004-07:002022-09-09T04:34:59.794-07:00Physics, Chemistry, Maths and Biology Question Papers with Answer Key -KEA<h2 style="text-align: left;">Physics, Chemistry, Maths and Biology Question Papers with Answer Key -KEA</h2><div>The KEA <a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/">Question Papers</a> of Physics, Chemistry, Maths and Biology with Answer Key published here</div><div><br /></div><div><a class="note-text font-weight-bold" href="http://kea.kar.nic.in/phy2021.pdf" id="6461" style="box-sizing: border-box; color: #901d78; font-family: Lato, sans-serif; font-size: 16px; font-weight: 700; text-decoration-line: none;" target="_blank">PHYSICS - 2021</a></div><div><br /></div><p class="note-text font-weight-bold" style="background-color: white; box-sizing: border-box; color: #901d78; font-family: Lato, sans-serif; font-size: 16px; font-weight: 700 !important; margin-bottom: 1rem; margin-top: 0px;"><a class="note-text font-weight-bold" href="http://kea.kar.nic.in/che2021.pdf" id="6462" style="background-color: transparent; box-sizing: border-box; color: #901d78; text-decoration-line: none;" target="_blank">CHEMISTRY - 2021</a></p><p class="note-text font-weight-bold" style="background-color: white; box-sizing: border-box; color: #901d78; font-family: Lato, sans-serif; font-size: 16px; font-weight: 700 !important; margin-bottom: 1rem; margin-top: 0px;"><a class="note-text font-weight-bold" href="http://kea.kar.nic.in/maths2021.pdf" id="6463" style="background-color: transparent; box-sizing: border-box; color: #901d78; text-decoration-line: none;" target="_blank">MATHS - 2021</a></p><p class="note-text font-weight-bold" style="background-color: white; box-sizing: border-box; color: #901d78; font-family: Lato, sans-serif; font-size: 16px; font-weight: 700 !important; margin-bottom: 1rem; margin-top: 0px;"><a class="note-text font-weight-bold" href="http://kea.kar.nic.in/bio2021.pdf" id="6464" style="background-color: transparent; box-sizing: border-box; color: #901d78; text-decoration-line: none;" target="_blank">BIOLOGY - 2021</a></p><p><a class="note-text font-weight-bold" href="http://kea.kar.nic.in/ans_2021.pdf" id="6465" style="box-sizing: border-box; color: #901d78; font-family: Lato, sans-serif; font-size: 16px; font-weight: 700; text-decoration-line: none;" target="_blank">KEYANSWER - 2021</a></p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi6afk7D4aykxgNvSc9p7ueaNbWV2uRh7AnuTpdKeFMPcwKi1ZFhX8qNY1jhCICrX3XHzQSeAWOV3SwO7WHjceWtW2kun9cih7Qm_FSg905BbpLndb7tBgDEXl_0vzForOPJHsLG3UfAMc5pOKu6kACqZbBthAzNQZ2p3gn4fQMS84Rm3xRqrxJ0aLLUw/s600/Physics,%20Chemistry,%20Maths%20and%20Biology%20Question%20Papers%20with%20Answer%20Key%20-KEA.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="Physics, Chemistry, Maths and Biology Question Papers with Answer Key -KEA" border="0" data-original-height="300" data-original-width="600" height="160" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi6afk7D4aykxgNvSc9p7ueaNbWV2uRh7AnuTpdKeFMPcwKi1ZFhX8qNY1jhCICrX3XHzQSeAWOV3SwO7WHjceWtW2kun9cih7Qm_FSg905BbpLndb7tBgDEXl_0vzForOPJHsLG3UfAMc5pOKu6kACqZbBthAzNQZ2p3gn4fQMS84Rm3xRqrxJ0aLLUw/w320-h160/Physics,%20Chemistry,%20Maths%20and%20Biology%20Question%20Papers%20with%20Answer%20Key%20-KEA.png" title="Physics, Chemistry, Maths and Biology Question Papers with Answer Key -KEA" width="320" /></a></div><p><br /></p><p>More Question Answers available for download also at <a href="https://rightjobalert.com/category/question-papers/">https://rightjobalert.com/category/question-papers/</a></p>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-191389552824434522022-09-07T03:10:00.008-07:002022-09-09T04:34:59.785-07:00LDC previous year question papers with answers pdf<p></p><h2 style="text-align: left;">LDC previous year question papers with answers pdf</h2><div>Name of the Exam: Lower Division Clerk Recruitment- LDC</div><div><br /></div><div>No. of Questions: 100</div><div><br /></div><div>Answer: Yes Available in Pdf. Format</div><div><br /></div><div>Medium of Questions: Kannada and English</div><p></p><h4 style="text-align: left;">LDC previous year question paper Page 1</h4><p></p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/a/AVvXsEhWKbEuC6qp3L7tlhS_r6F7e0-FNgmuadYPct8CQnBCnfvR93Wh4rGIRIkiwXaCfFWiCUNtOdzFQI6LwLRleKAs6sQYdVOMKv3GjYI2byGMXB1D4bsZvQGHQWQrzs4TnXwC2orSaq2WVJG671OiFofhsl-e_pQgoAWXuPUxEOJ-rCwZ8wp7QrUquw36wg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="LDC previous year question paper Page 1" data-original-height="1631" data-original-width="1178" height="400" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/a/AVvXsEhWKbEuC6qp3L7tlhS_r6F7e0-FNgmuadYPct8CQnBCnfvR93Wh4rGIRIkiwXaCfFWiCUNtOdzFQI6LwLRleKAs6sQYdVOMKv3GjYI2byGMXB1D4bsZvQGHQWQrzs4TnXwC2orSaq2WVJG671OiFofhsl-e_pQgoAWXuPUxEOJ-rCwZ8wp7QrUquw36wg=w288-h400" title="LDC previous year question papers with answers pdf" width="288" /></a></div><p></p><h4>LDC previous year question paper Page 2</h4><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"></div><p><br /></p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/a/AVvXsEj_iigJ2akzj0jTBK9uf0sMOKxOlLixq0U5decf3cqFxhnSrPmFdMI80-2nJQ9BbpnfSjhUBsCcCZPycDV8htWKct5or1WCW-j3hc_jKNwmDm2VyfHOjLczoqJueiVY3UCTfMjs9j0xAkflX2NpNKl2rtnTHK4PY2c-8D1ap6UrM1TMa9dH5Q3yWda3hw" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="LDC previous year question paper Page 2" data-original-height="1628" data-original-width="1173" height="400" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/a/AVvXsEj_iigJ2akzj0jTBK9uf0sMOKxOlLixq0U5decf3cqFxhnSrPmFdMI80-2nJQ9BbpnfSjhUBsCcCZPycDV8htWKct5or1WCW-j3hc_jKNwmDm2VyfHOjLczoqJueiVY3UCTfMjs9j0xAkflX2NpNKl2rtnTHK4PY2c-8D1ap6UrM1TMa9dH5Q3yWda3hw=w288-h400" width="288" /></a></div><p></p><h4>LDC <a href="https://rightjobalert.com/category/question-papers/">previous year question paper </a>Page 3</h4><p></p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/a/AVvXsEi5hXGHGV_nxkKP_0F1x6__gcozPI2I9I98Rjm-KnAI2JRKDItpjcJWolQRbwG3EvFpCke0VR5VyaQLE31koTU5_fW_9ndJEMrbi6Y5_z1RKlJ7tdyp8_q89cIXeVETQ0kDg6tVmBE0p83yCkhxyE-jhZrQXIGSHo-vYiZ3BE7hpO0FQe7dgKLzwtplLg" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="LDC previous year question paper Page 3" data-original-height="1628" data-original-width="1176" height="400" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/a/AVvXsEi5hXGHGV_nxkKP_0F1x6__gcozPI2I9I98Rjm-KnAI2JRKDItpjcJWolQRbwG3EvFpCke0VR5VyaQLE31koTU5_fW_9ndJEMrbi6Y5_z1RKlJ7tdyp8_q89cIXeVETQ0kDg6tVmBE0p83yCkhxyE-jhZrQXIGSHo-vYiZ3BE7hpO0FQe7dgKLzwtplLg=w288-h400" width="288" /></a></div><p></p><h4>LDC previous year question paper Page 4</h4><p></p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/a/AVvXsEhKMVVXokYoqxwptPZ3FtPuQIUqaqmrEnmF8nQAUgv0ODFbGCk0zIiuuMqjM4zr6MaWpRCDqLkbBnAZp4JKn5CFScuQemxeiXDRlycaW0rzUpDZfjtis5B3xuVr9qC-8I2NNSfXdFGJ-Wl6crm_uwksWnTsuCr7HneBK7dgTbbFDtMy9Pr8EfdM1QUwmw" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="LDC previous year question paper Page 4" data-original-height="1626" data-original-width="1173" height="400" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/a/AVvXsEhKMVVXokYoqxwptPZ3FtPuQIUqaqmrEnmF8nQAUgv0ODFbGCk0zIiuuMqjM4zr6MaWpRCDqLkbBnAZp4JKn5CFScuQemxeiXDRlycaW0rzUpDZfjtis5B3xuVr9qC-8I2NNSfXdFGJ-Wl6crm_uwksWnTsuCr7HneBK7dgTbbFDtMy9Pr8EfdM1QUwmw=w288-h400" width="288" /></a></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><p style="background-color: white; color: #25a186; font-family: "Open Sans", sans-serif; font-stretch: normal; font-variant-east-asian: normal; font-variant-numeric: normal; line-height: 1.33333; margin: 0px; text-align: left;">Note: For <a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/2017/09/isro-clerk-and-assistant-recruitment.html" style="background: transparent; color: #25a186; cursor: pointer; font-stretch: normal; font-variant-east-asian: normal; font-variant-numeric: normal; line-height: 1.33333; text-decoration-line: none;"><span style="font-size: x-small;">ISRO CLERK AND ASSISTANT RECRUITMENT EXAM QUESTION PAPERS.PDF</span></a>- Click here</p></div><p></p><h4>LDC previous year question paper Page 5</h4><p></p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/a/AVvXsEitQHDmi6zX1TO6UTPdoDyof75HVp5nbk0efqgYQFbnt6aNXqz-B-LvLvt9ZEe0gxirOelp9zHn2eeekuCMDMr15nstDJ24UQe4nBXVXZ3k19r3RYxmUKX6IDiIsX8hp8ZfnH5gjz55sCfVnCHCPDpYqe-8rhhqaA-aOBqM3tNINLo54bE7Zj4a4dlXrQ" style="margin-left: 1em; 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text-align: center;"><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: left;">Click here to view Answer Key for Above Questions</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: left;"><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2022/09/LDC-Question-Paper-old.pdf">LDC Question Paper old</a></p><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2022/09/LDC-old-Question-Paper-Answer-Key.pdf">LDC old Question Paper- Answer Key</a></p></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><br /><div style="text-align: left;"><a href="https://www.questionpapersdownload.com/">More Question Papers click here</a></div><div style="text-align: left;"><br /></div><div style="text-align: left;">Solved Question Papers Available at <a href="https://rightjobalert.com/category/question-papers/">https://rightjobalert.com/category/question-papers/</a></div></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><ul class="tabs" style="background-color: white; color: #292929; font-family: Lora, serif; font-size: 20px; margin: 0px; max-height: 288px; overflow-y: hidden; padding: 0px; text-align: start;"><li aria-hidden="false" class="overflowable-item" style="display: inline-block; height: 48px; margin-right: 30px;"></li></ul></div><p></p>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5498883808931443074.post-27260008070347401532021-12-13T22:15:00.003-08:002022-09-09T04:34:59.802-07:00Nursing Solved Question Paper pdf<h2 style="text-align: left;">Nursing Solved Question Paper pdf</h2><p>Staff Nurse/ Nursing Officer Recruitment Examination questions and Answers published here. these question answers are helpful for preparing future Nurses recruitment Examinations.The Question Paper is available in both Pdf and image Png. Format. There are 100 Multiple choice Nursing Questions- 4 options under each questions, you choose any right answer in a rough sheet and later on check the Did you answer correctly by comparing your answers with the answers provided below.</p><p>Question Paper Format: Pdf/ png</p><p>Total No. of Questions: 100</p><h3>Answers Available-<a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/Nursing-eXam-Answer-key-41-16.pdf"> Click here</a></h3><h4>Nursing exam questions and answers png page 1</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-01.png"><img alt="" class="alignnone size-medium wp-image-10550" height="300" src="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-01-224x300.png" width="224" /></a></p><h4>Nursing exam questions and answers png page 2</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-02.png"><img alt="" class="alignnone size-medium wp-image-10551" height="300" src="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-02-226x300.png" width="226" /></a></p><h4>Nursing exam questions and answers png page 3</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-03.png"><img alt="" class="alignnone size-medium wp-image-10552" height="300" src="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-03-224x300.png" width="224" /></a></p><h4>Nursing exam questions and answers png page 4</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-04.png"><img alt="Nursing exam questions and answers pdf" class="alignnone size-medium wp-image-10553" height="300" src="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-04-226x300.png" width="226" /></a></p><h4>Nursing exam questions and answers png page 5</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-05.png"><img alt="Nursing exam questions and answers pdf" class="alignnone size-medium wp-image-10554" height="300" src="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-05-224x300.png" width="224" /></a></p><h4>Nursing exam questions and answers png page 6</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-06.png"><img alt="Nursing exam questions and answers pdf" class="alignnone size-medium wp-image-10543" height="300" src="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-06-226x300.png" width="226" /></a></p><p> </p><h4>Nursing exam questions and answers png page 7</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-07.png"><img alt="Nursing exam questions and answers pdf" class="alignnone size-medium wp-image-10544" height="300" src="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-07-224x300.png" width="224" /></a></p><h4>Nursing exam questions and answers png page 8</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-08.png"><img alt="Nursing exam questions and answers pdf" class="alignnone size-medium wp-image-10545" height="300" src="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-08-226x300.png" width="226" /></a></p><h4>Nursing exam questions and answers png page 9</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-09.png"><img alt="Nursing exam questions and answers pdf" class="alignnone size-medium wp-image-10546" height="300" src="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-09-224x300.png" width="224" /></a></p><h4>Nursing exam questions and answers png page 10</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-10.png"><img alt="Nursing exam questions and answers pdf" class="alignnone size-medium wp-image-10547" height="300" src="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-10-226x300.png" width="226" /></a></p><h4>Nursing exam questions and answers png page 11</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-12.png"><img alt="Nursing exam questions and answers pdf" class="alignnone size-medium wp-image-10549" height="300" src="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY-12-226x300.png" width="226" /></a></p><h4><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/NURSE-GRADE-II-HOMOEO-HOMOEOPATHY.pdf">Download </a>Question paper in pdf format</h4><h4><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/Nursing-eXam-Answer-key-41-16.pdf">Download </a>Answer key in pdf format</h4><p><a href="https://rightjobalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/07/Staff-Nurse-Nursing-Officer-Exam-Solved-Question-Paper-100-Questions.pdf.pdf">Staff Nurse Nursing Officer Exam Solved Question Paper-100 Questions.pdf</a></p>JOBShttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00753400635390793246noreply@blogger.com4