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Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Paper with Answer-100 Questions

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Paper with Answer-100 Questions

Exam: Assistant Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology

Date of Test 15-03-2021

Department Medical Education Services 

Obstetrics and Gynaecology Question Paper with Answer Sl. No. 51- 100

Question 51:-All are TRUE about atypical leiomyomas EXCEPT

        A:-Mitotically active leiomyoma is defined by the presence of 5 to 10 mitoses/10 high-power fields and may be found in pregnancy and OCP users

        B:-Cellular leiomyomas exhibiting chromosome 1p deletions, may be clinically more aggressive

        C:-STUMP shows atypical histologic features that range between leiomyoma and LMS but the mitotic count is less than 10/10 hpf

        D:-STUMP mostly those that are p53 and p16 positive, have been found to exhibit malignant potential to develop a low-grade LMS

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 52:-Contraindications to Uterine Artery Embolisation (UAE) include all EXCEPT

        A:-desirous of future fertility

        B:-impaired renal dysfunction

        C:-diminished immune status

        D:-willingness for hysterectomy

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 53:-The pharmacologic treatments for vulvodynia can include topical lidocaine 5% with any of the following EXCEPT

        A:-oral gabapentine and steroids

        B:-botulinum toxin injections

        C:-combined oestrogen and progesterone pills

        D:-menopausal hormone therapy

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Paper with Answer-100 Questions

Question 54:-Find the INCORRECT statement about Chronic Pelvic Pain (CPP)

        A:-There appears to be no relationship between the incidence and severity of pain or the stage of the endometriotic lesions

        B:-The specific location and density of pelvic adhesions correlates consistently with the presence of pain symptoms

        C:-Endometriosis can be demonstrated in 15% to 40% of patients undergoing laparoscopy for CPP

        D:-The accuracy of ultrasound in detecting ovarian remnant syndrome can be improved by treating the patient with a 5- to 10-day course of clomiphene citrate

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 55:-Find the FALSE statement regarding elagolix

        A:-used to suppress the estrogen production to a level that is adequate for symptom relief but minimizes hypoestrogenic effects

        B:-cannot produce a dose-dependent suppression of pituitary function and ovarian hormones like GnRH agonists

        C:-improves dysmenorrhea and nonmenstrual pelvic pain during a 6-month period in women with endometriosis-associated pain

        D:-orally active GnRH antagonist with no flare effect

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 56:-The FALSE statement regarding trichomonial vaginitis is

        A:-Increased risk of PPROM and PTL in pregnant women and higher post hysterectomy cuff infection

        B:-Less than 10% of men contract the disease after a single exposure to an infected woman

        C:-T. vaginalis infection is associated with a two to three fold increased risk for HIV acquisition

        D:-Clue cells and Whiff test may be positive in TV

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 57:-Find the FALSE statement regarding cervicitis

        A:-The microbial etiology of endocervicitis is unknown in about 50% of cases in which neither gonococci nor chlamydia is detected

        B:-Mycoplasma genitaliem, can be detected in 10% to 30% of women with clinical cervicitis

        C:-Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) for gonorrhea and chlamydia, is not mandatory in all cases

        D:-Cervicitis is commonly associated with BV, which if not treated concurrently, leads to significant persistence

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question58:-All the statements regarding PID are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-About 75% of women with tubo-ovarian abscess do not respond to antimicrobial therapy alone and need drainage

        B:-No definite symptoms are defined to diagnose PID

        C:-Evaluation of both vaginal and endocervical secretions is a crucial part of the workup of a patient with PID

        D:-Additional criteria to increase the specificity of the diagnosis include endometrial biopsy, CRP and positive test for gonorrhea or chlamydia and laparoscopy

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 59:-Regarding genital ulcers find the TRUE statement

        A:-The ulcer of syphilis has irregular margins and is deep with undermined edges

        B:-The chancroid ulcer has a smooth, indurated border and a smooth base

        C:-The genital herpes ulcer is often multiple, sub-epidermal and inflamed

        D:-If inguinal buboes with no ulcer is present, the most likely diagnosis is LGV

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question60:-Regarding testing in genital ulcers which of the following statements is FALSE

        A:-(VDRL) test and a confirmatory treponemal test - fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA ABS) or microhemagglutinin-T. pallidum should be used to diagnose syphilis

presumptively in all cases

        B:-HSV culture sensitivity approaches 100% in the vesicle stage but PCR assays for HSV DNA are more sensitive in the ulcerative stage

        C:-Optimally, the evaluation of a patient with a genital ulcer should include culture for Haemophilusducreyi

        D:-The diagnosis remains unconfirmed in more than half of patients (60%) with genital ulcers

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 61:-Find the FALSE statement regarding HPV induced CIN.

        A:-HPV-16 infection is a very specific finding and can be found in only 2% of women with normal cervical cytology

        B:-HPV-18 is more specific than HPV-16 for invasive tumors

        C:-Metaplasia found at the squamocolumnar junction, begins in the subcolumnar reserve cells

        D:-As the CIN lesions become more severe, the HPV copy numbers decrease, and the capsid antigen disappears

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question62:-The sensitivity of cervical cytology testing by Pap Smear for the detection of CIN 2 or 3 ranges from

        A:-60 to 95%

        B:-47% to 62%



        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question63:-Cervical conisation is indicated in all EXCEPT

        A:-ECC histologic findings are positive for CIN 2 or CIN 3

        B:-Lack of correlation between cytology, biopsy and colposcopy

        C:-Type I transformation zone

        D:-Diagnosis of AGC-AIS

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question64:-The following drugs are approved for treatment of Genitourinary Syndrome of Menopause (GSM) EXCEPT


        B:-17 beta oestradiol



        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question65:-Following are the duties of a Registered Medical Practitioner under POCSO Act of India EXCEPT

        A:-The registered medical practitioner shall submit the report on the condition of the child within 48 hrs to the SJPU or local police

        B:-Provide prophylaxis for identified STD including prophylaxis for HIV and emergency contraception

        C:-Shall request for legal or magisterial requisition or other documentation prior to rendering such care

        D:-Options 1) and 3)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question66:-All are TRUE statements regarding female sterilisation in India EXCEPT

        A:-Laparoscopic tubal ligation can be done concurrently with second-trimester abortion and in the post-partum period only by an expert operator

        B:-The consent of the spouse is not required for sterilization

        C:-Clients should be married with female client below the age of 49 years and above the age of 22 years

        D:-The couple need have minimum one child whose age is above one year unless the sterilization is medically indicated

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question67:-All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-BMI greater than 35 or weight greater than 100 kg, should receive 2 g of cefazolin as preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis

        B:-In as many as 50% of postoperative patients, Febrile morbidity in first 48 hours is noninfectious and does not need antibiotics

        C:-Even a single dose of perioperative prophylactic antibiotic decreases the incidence of postoperative urinary tract infection from 40% to as low as 4%

        D:-Incidence of wound infections could be decreased by hexachlorophene showers before surgery and shaving of the woundsite just prior to incision

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question68:-All the following are TRUE about Enhanced Recovery-ERAS Protocol EXCEPT

        A:-Preoperative carbohydrate loading

        B:-The use of liberal antiemetics including preoperative steroids

        C:-Avoiding routine nasogastric tube and drains

        D:-Adequate pain relief with opiods

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question69:-Find the CORRECT statement regarding laparoscopy.

        A:-To avoid injury to the deep inferior epigastric vessels, the lateral trocar should be placed 3 to 4 cm medial to the medial umbilical ligament

        B:-Transillumination of the abdominal wall from within permits the identification of the deep inferior epigastric vessels in most thin women

        C:-The amount of gas transmitted into the peritoneal cavity should depend on the measured intraperitoneal pressure, not the volume of gas inflated

        D:-Hasson's open entry method is better than the closed method in preventing organ injury

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question70:-Find the FALSE statement.

        A:-Data are insufficient regarding fasting times for clear liquids and the risk of pulmonary aspiration during labor

        B:-Modest amounts of clear liquids can be allowed in uncomplicated laboring women

        C:-Obvious solid foods are best avoided

        D:-A fasting period of 6 to 8 hours for solid food is recommended for uncomplicated parturients prior to undergoing Category I, II and III Caesarean sections

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question71:-Findings consistent with an Acute Peripartum or intrapartum event leading to Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy are the following EXCEPT

        A:-Apgar score < 5 at 5 and 10 minutes

        B:-Umbilical arterial pH < 7.0 and/or base deficit > 12 mmo I/L

        C:-Sentinel hypoxic or ischemic event occurring immediately before or during delivery

        D:-Spastic diplegia and ataxia type cerebral palsy

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question72:-Absolute contraindications to External Cephalic Version in Breech include all EXCEPT


        B:-Antepartum hemorrhage

        C:-Any contraindication to labour

        D:-Multiple gestation

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question73:-Which of the following is used to deliver an arrested after coming head in assisted breech delivery of chin to pubis rotated baby ?

        A:-Scanzoni maneuver

        B:-Pajot's maneuver

        C:-Prague maneuver

        D:-Kristellar maneuver

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question74:-Which is NOT a contraindication to vacuum extraction ?

        A:-Brow presentation

        B:-Fetal bleeding disorder or demineralization disorder

        C:-Previous fetal scalp sampling

        D:-Less than 34 weeks of gestation

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question75:-All the following are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Third-and fourth-degree lacerations at delivery are associated with an increased risk of fecal incontinence (OR 2-3)

        B:-Patients with occult anal sphincter tears are 8 times more likely to have fecal incontinence

        C:-There is sufficient evidence to support primary elective cesarean delivery for the purpose of preserving fecal continence

        D:-Both forceps and vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery significantly increase this risk, with vacuum being less traumatic than forceps

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question76:-Using WHO classification for Semen Analysis interpretation, choose the FALSE statement is

        A:-The normal lower limit for normal morphology is 4%

        B:-The normal lower limit for sperm motility is 32%

        C:-Viability should be at least 58%

        D:-The normal lower limit for sperm concentration is 39 million/mL

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question77:-Contraindications to using Gonadotropins for ovulation induction in infertile women include all EXCEPT

        A:-Uncontrolled thyroid and adrenal dysfunction

        B:-Hypogonadotropichypogonadism due to space occupying lesions

        C:-Sex hormone-dependent tumors of the reproductive tract and accecssory organs

        D:-Kallmann syndrome

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question78:-All the following are methods to decrease OHSS EXCEPT

        A:-HCG trigger

        B:-GnRH antagonists

        C:-Invitro oocyte maturation


        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question79:-All statements about heterotopic pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-1 in 30000 in spontaneous conceptions, as high as 1% with IVF treatment

        B:-Only 26% of heterotopic cases can be diagnosed with transvaginal US

        C:-Most often diagnosed in the first 5 to 8 weeks of gestation

        D:-After treatment of a heterotopic gestation, the overall delivery rate for the intrauterine pregnancy is only 10-20%

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question80:-All the following are independent prognostic variables in endometrial cancer EXCEPT

        A:-Myometrial invasion

        B:-Peritoneal cytology

        C:-Tumor size

        D:-Lymph node metastasis

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question81:-Find the INCORRECT statement regarding endometrial cancer.

        A:-Inactivation of the PTEN tumor-suppressor gene is the most common genetic defect in type I cancers

        B:-Type I cancers arise from its precursor Endometrial Intraepithelial Carcinoma (EIC)

        C:-Type II cancers frequently demonstrate alterations in HER2/neu,p53,p16,E-cadherin and loss of LOH

        D:-Type II endometrial cancer appears to be unrelated to high estrogen levels and often develops in nonobese women

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question82:-All are TRUE regarding Leiomyosarcoma EXCEPT

        A:-This malignancy has no relationship with parity

        B:-A history of prior pelvic radiation can be elicited in about 50% of women with uterine LMS

        C:-Surgery is the mainstay of treatment for uterine LMS

        D:-Retroperitoneal lymphatic spread is rare in women with early-stage disease and lymphadenectomy is not associated with a survival advantage

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question83:-All the following are TRUE about TTTS EXCEPT

        A:-Although growth discordance or growth restriction may be found with TTTS, these per se are not considered diagnostic criteria

        B:-TTTS is diagnosed in a monochorionicdiamnionic pregnancy when there is oligamnios SVP<2 cm in one sac and polyhydramnios SVP>8 in the other sac

        C:-Sonography surveillance of pregnancies at risk for TTTS should begin at 16 weeks and continue every 2 weeks

        D:-The discrepancies in amnionic fluid volumes of TTTS are also typically seen in Twin Anaemia Polycythemia Sequence (TAPS)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question84:-Find the FALSE statement regarding 2018 FIGO staging of cancer cervix.

        A:-Tumour of size ≥ 2 cm and < 4 cm confined to the cervix is stage IB2

        B:-Imaging and pathology can be used, where available, to supplement clinical findings with respect to tumor size and extent, in all stages

        C:-The involvement of lymph nodes are not part of staging

        D:-The lateral extent of the lesion is no longer considered

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question85:-The boundaries of paravesical space include all EXCEPT

        A:-The obliterated umbilical artery running along the bladder medially

        B:-The obturator internus muscle along the pelvic sidewall laterally

        C:-The uterosacral ligament posteriorly

        D:-The pubic symphysis anteriorly

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question86:-All are TRUE regarding serous borderline ovarian tumours EXCEPT

        A:-10% of all ovarian serous tumors are of borderline type and 50% occur before the age of 40 years

        B:-Up to 40% of serous borderline tumors are associated with spread beyond the ovary

        C:-Up to 10% of women with ovarian serous borderline tumors and extraovarian implants may have invasive implants

        D:-Borderline serous tumors may harbor foci of stromal microinvasion and if so, should be managed as aggressive serous carcinomas

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question87:-In Kyoto (Querlou and Morrow) classification, Nerve sparing Radical Hysterectomy is

        A:-Type B

        B:-Type C1

        C:-Type C2

        D:-Type D2

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question88:-All are TRUE about Germ cell tumours EXCEPT

        A:-In patients with stage IA dysgerminoma, unilateral oophorectomy alone results in a 5-year disease-free survival rate of greater than 95%

        B:-Patients with stage IA, grade 1 immature teratoma need 4 cycles of BEP adjuvant therapy after surgery

        C:-All patients with Endodermal Stromal Tumours (EST) should be treated with chemotherapy shortly after recovering from surgery ovarian dysfunction of failure

        D:-Transient ovarian failure is common with platinum-based chemotherapy for germ cell tumours and majority will have successful childbearing in the future

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question89:-All the following statements regarding Granulosa cell tumours of the ovary are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Endometrial cancer occurs in association with granulosa cell tumors in at least 5% of cases

        B:-25-50% of Granulosa cell tumours are associated with endometrial hyperplasia

        C:-Granulosa cell tumors may also produce androgens and cause virilization

        D:-Juvenile granulosa cell tumors of the ovary are rare and behaves more aggressively than the adult type

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question90:-All the following statements about intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-bile acids are cleared incompletely and accumulate in plasma but the cause is unclear

        B:-pruritus shows predilection for the soles and may precede laboratory findings by several weeks

        C:-total plasma concentrations of bilirubin exceed 8 mg/dL and serum transaminases exceed 500 in 30% patients

        D:-ursodeoxycholic acid relieves pruritus and improves fetal outcome better than steroids and cholestyramine

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question91:-All the statements about sickle cell anaemia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Sickle-cell trait does not appear to be associated with increased perinatal mortality, low birthweight or pregnancy-induced hypertension

        B:-In Sickle cell disease there is no categorical contraindication to vaginal delivery, and caesarean delivery is reserved for obstetrical indications

        C:-Routine prophylactic blood transfusions during labour is recommended to reduce painful crises in Sickle cell anaemia

        D:-Antenatal folic acid supplementation with 4 mg daily throughout pregnancy is needed to support rapid red blood cell turnover

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question92:-All the statements about thrombocytopenia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-A platelet count of < 80,000/L should trigger an evaluation for etiologies other than gestational thrombocytopenia

        B:-Hypertensive disorders account for 21% of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy

        C:-In ITP complicating pregnancy, therapy with steroids is considered if the platelet count is below 30,000 to 50,000/L

        D:-Maternal platelet counts have strong correlation with fetal platelet counts and caesarean delivery is recommended if platelet count is < 50,000 on fetal blood sampling

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question93:-All the following statements regarding diabetes in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Periconceptional HbA1C should be kept under 6.5% in pregestational diabetic women

        B:-MSAFP levels may be lower in diabetic pregnancies and the incidence of congenital cardiac anomalies is five fold in mothers with diabetes

        C:-Ultra short acting insulin analogues starts acting in 30 minutes, peaks in 2 hrs minutes and is good for preprandial glycemic control in pregnancy

        D:-Insulin therapy is typically added if fasting levels persistently exceed 95 mg/dL after medical nutrition therapy

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question94:-All the statements about thyroid in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Women with TPO antibodies are at increased risk for progression of thyroid disease and postpartum thyroiditis

        B:-It is recommended that women avoid pregnancy for 1 month after radioablative therapy with iodine 131

        C:-Pregnancy is associated with an increased thyroxine requirement in approximately a third of supplemented women

        D:-Prophylthiouracil (PTU) is preferred in pregnancy because it partially inhibits the conversion of T4 to T3 and crosses the placenta less readily than methimazole

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question95:-All the statements about SLE in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Fetal cell micro chimerism leads to the predilection for autoimmune disorders like SLE among women

        B:-In the presence of anti-Ro and Anti-La antibodies, the incidence of fetal myocarditis and heart block is as high as 20%

        C:-During pregnancy, lupus improves in a third of women, remains unchanged in a third and worsens in the remaining third

        D:-Hydroxychloroquine is not associated with congenital malformations and can be continued in pregnancy

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question96:-All are TRUE about antiphospholipid antibody syndrome EXCEPT

        A:-Asherson syndrome is a rapidly progressive thromboembolic disorder due to a cytokine storm seen in antiphospolipid antibody syndrome

        B:-Approximately 60 percent of patients with APS have a positive lupus anticoagulant LAC assay alone

        C:-Heparin binds to beta 2 glycoprotein I and prevents binding of anticardiolipin andanti-beta 2 glycoprotein I antibodies to the syncytiotrophoblasts

        D:-Treatment using aspirin, anticoagulation and close monitoring has increased live birth rates to more than 70 percent in women with APS

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question97:-All are TRUE about management of obstetric haemorrhage EXCEPT

        A:-The most important mechanism of action with internal iliac artery ligation is an 85-percent reduction in pulse pressure in those arteries distal to the ligation

        B:-ROTEM or TEG cannot diagnose coagulopathies stemming from platelet dysfunction or anti platelet drugs

        C:-Each single-donor apheresis six-unit bag raises the platelet count by approximately 5000/L

        D:-Dilutional coagulopathy that is clinically indistinguishable from DIC is the most frequent coagulation defect found with blood loss and multiple transfusions

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question98:-All are TRUE about USS features of Placenta Accreta Spectrum (PAS) EXCEPT

        A:-loss of the normal hypoechoicretroplacentalzone between the placenta and uterus

        B:-placental vascular lacunae or lakes

        C:-distance between the uterine serosa-bladder wall interface and the retroplacental vessels measures < 10 mm

        D:-placental bulging into the posterior bladder wall

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question99:-USS has a sensitivity of ____________ in suspected abruptio placenta.





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question100:-All are TRUE about COVID-19 in pregnancy EXCEPT

        A:-It is associated with an almost three times greater risk of preterm birth (17%)

        B:-Majority of pregnant women (74%) may be asymptomatic

        C:-ICU admissions are not more common in pregnant women compared to nonpregnant women of the same age

        D:-Risk factors associated with hospital admissions include older age, obesity, diabetes and hypertension

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

More OBG Question Answers- Click here

obstetrics_and_gynaecology Question Paper with Answer.pdf


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