Skip to main content

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Paper with Answer-100 Questions

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Paper with Answer-100 Questions

Exam: Assistant Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology

Date of Test 15-03-2021

Department Medical Education Services 

Obstetrics and Gynaecology Question Paper with Answer Sl. No. 51- 100

Question 51:-All are TRUE about atypical leiomyomas EXCEPT

        A:-Mitotically active leiomyoma is defined by the presence of 5 to 10 mitoses/10 high-power fields and may be found in pregnancy and OCP users

        B:-Cellular leiomyomas exhibiting chromosome 1p deletions, may be clinically more aggressive

        C:-STUMP shows atypical histologic features that range between leiomyoma and LMS but the mitotic count is less than 10/10 hpf

        D:-STUMP mostly those that are p53 and p16 positive, have been found to exhibit malignant potential to develop a low-grade LMS

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 52:-Contraindications to Uterine Artery Embolisation (UAE) include all EXCEPT

        A:-desirous of future fertility

        B:-impaired renal dysfunction

        C:-diminished immune status

        D:-willingness for hysterectomy

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 53:-The pharmacologic treatments for vulvodynia can include topical lidocaine 5% with any of the following EXCEPT

        A:-oral gabapentine and steroids

        B:-botulinum toxin injections

        C:-combined oestrogen and progesterone pills

        D:-menopausal hormone therapy

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Paper with Answer-100 Questions

Question 54:-Find the INCORRECT statement about Chronic Pelvic Pain (CPP)

        A:-There appears to be no relationship between the incidence and severity of pain or the stage of the endometriotic lesions

        B:-The specific location and density of pelvic adhesions correlates consistently with the presence of pain symptoms

        C:-Endometriosis can be demonstrated in 15% to 40% of patients undergoing laparoscopy for CPP

        D:-The accuracy of ultrasound in detecting ovarian remnant syndrome can be improved by treating the patient with a 5- to 10-day course of clomiphene citrate

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 55:-Find the FALSE statement regarding elagolix

        A:-used to suppress the estrogen production to a level that is adequate for symptom relief but minimizes hypoestrogenic effects

        B:-cannot produce a dose-dependent suppression of pituitary function and ovarian hormones like GnRH agonists

        C:-improves dysmenorrhea and nonmenstrual pelvic pain during a 6-month period in women with endometriosis-associated pain

        D:-orally active GnRH antagonist with no flare effect

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 56:-The FALSE statement regarding trichomonial vaginitis is

        A:-Increased risk of PPROM and PTL in pregnant women and higher post hysterectomy cuff infection

        B:-Less than 10% of men contract the disease after a single exposure to an infected woman

        C:-T. vaginalis infection is associated with a two to three fold increased risk for HIV acquisition

        D:-Clue cells and Whiff test may be positive in TV

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 57:-Find the FALSE statement regarding cervicitis

        A:-The microbial etiology of endocervicitis is unknown in about 50% of cases in which neither gonococci nor chlamydia is detected

        B:-Mycoplasma genitaliem, can be detected in 10% to 30% of women with clinical cervicitis

        C:-Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) for gonorrhea and chlamydia, is not mandatory in all cases

        D:-Cervicitis is commonly associated with BV, which if not treated concurrently, leads to significant persistence

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question58:-All the statements regarding PID are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-About 75% of women with tubo-ovarian abscess do not respond to antimicrobial therapy alone and need drainage

        B:-No definite symptoms are defined to diagnose PID

        C:-Evaluation of both vaginal and endocervical secretions is a crucial part of the workup of a patient with PID

        D:-Additional criteria to increase the specificity of the diagnosis include endometrial biopsy, CRP and positive test for gonorrhea or chlamydia and laparoscopy

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 59:-Regarding genital ulcers find the TRUE statement

        A:-The ulcer of syphilis has irregular margins and is deep with undermined edges

        B:-The chancroid ulcer has a smooth, indurated border and a smooth base

        C:-The genital herpes ulcer is often multiple, sub-epidermal and inflamed

        D:-If inguinal buboes with no ulcer is present, the most likely diagnosis is LGV

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question60:-Regarding testing in genital ulcers which of the following statements is FALSE

        A:-(VDRL) test and a confirmatory treponemal test - fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA ABS) or microhemagglutinin-T. pallidum should be used to diagnose syphilis

presumptively in all cases

        B:-HSV culture sensitivity approaches 100% in the vesicle stage but PCR assays for HSV DNA are more sensitive in the ulcerative stage

        C:-Optimally, the evaluation of a patient with a genital ulcer should include culture for Haemophilusducreyi

        D:-The diagnosis remains unconfirmed in more than half of patients (60%) with genital ulcers

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 61:-Find the FALSE statement regarding HPV induced CIN.

        A:-HPV-16 infection is a very specific finding and can be found in only 2% of women with normal cervical cytology

        B:-HPV-18 is more specific than HPV-16 for invasive tumors

        C:-Metaplasia found at the squamocolumnar junction, begins in the subcolumnar reserve cells

        D:-As the CIN lesions become more severe, the HPV copy numbers decrease, and the capsid antigen disappears

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question62:-The sensitivity of cervical cytology testing by Pap Smear for the detection of CIN 2 or 3 ranges from

        A:-60 to 95%

        B:-47% to 62%



        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question63:-Cervical conisation is indicated in all EXCEPT

        A:-ECC histologic findings are positive for CIN 2 or CIN 3

        B:-Lack of correlation between cytology, biopsy and colposcopy

        C:-Type I transformation zone

        D:-Diagnosis of AGC-AIS

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question64:-The following drugs are approved for treatment of Genitourinary Syndrome of Menopause (GSM) EXCEPT


        B:-17 beta oestradiol



        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question65:-Following are the duties of a Registered Medical Practitioner under POCSO Act of India EXCEPT

        A:-The registered medical practitioner shall submit the report on the condition of the child within 48 hrs to the SJPU or local police

        B:-Provide prophylaxis for identified STD including prophylaxis for HIV and emergency contraception

        C:-Shall request for legal or magisterial requisition or other documentation prior to rendering such care

        D:-Options 1) and 3)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question66:-All are TRUE statements regarding female sterilisation in India EXCEPT

        A:-Laparoscopic tubal ligation can be done concurrently with second-trimester abortion and in the post-partum period only by an expert operator

        B:-The consent of the spouse is not required for sterilization

        C:-Clients should be married with female client below the age of 49 years and above the age of 22 years

        D:-The couple need have minimum one child whose age is above one year unless the sterilization is medically indicated

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question67:-All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-BMI greater than 35 or weight greater than 100 kg, should receive 2 g of cefazolin as preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis

        B:-In as many as 50% of postoperative patients, Febrile morbidity in first 48 hours is noninfectious and does not need antibiotics

        C:-Even a single dose of perioperative prophylactic antibiotic decreases the incidence of postoperative urinary tract infection from 40% to as low as 4%

        D:-Incidence of wound infections could be decreased by hexachlorophene showers before surgery and shaving of the woundsite just prior to incision

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question68:-All the following are TRUE about Enhanced Recovery-ERAS Protocol EXCEPT

        A:-Preoperative carbohydrate loading

        B:-The use of liberal antiemetics including preoperative steroids

        C:-Avoiding routine nasogastric tube and drains

        D:-Adequate pain relief with opiods

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question69:-Find the CORRECT statement regarding laparoscopy.

        A:-To avoid injury to the deep inferior epigastric vessels, the lateral trocar should be placed 3 to 4 cm medial to the medial umbilical ligament

        B:-Transillumination of the abdominal wall from within permits the identification of the deep inferior epigastric vessels in most thin women

        C:-The amount of gas transmitted into the peritoneal cavity should depend on the measured intraperitoneal pressure, not the volume of gas inflated

        D:-Hasson's open entry method is better than the closed method in preventing organ injury

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question70:-Find the FALSE statement.

        A:-Data are insufficient regarding fasting times for clear liquids and the risk of pulmonary aspiration during labor

        B:-Modest amounts of clear liquids can be allowed in uncomplicated laboring women

        C:-Obvious solid foods are best avoided

        D:-A fasting period of 6 to 8 hours for solid food is recommended for uncomplicated parturients prior to undergoing Category I, II and III Caesarean sections

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question71:-Findings consistent with an Acute Peripartum or intrapartum event leading to Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy are the following EXCEPT

        A:-Apgar score < 5 at 5 and 10 minutes

        B:-Umbilical arterial pH < 7.0 and/or base deficit > 12 mmo I/L

        C:-Sentinel hypoxic or ischemic event occurring immediately before or during delivery

        D:-Spastic diplegia and ataxia type cerebral palsy

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question72:-Absolute contraindications to External Cephalic Version in Breech include all EXCEPT


        B:-Antepartum hemorrhage

        C:-Any contraindication to labour

        D:-Multiple gestation

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question73:-Which of the following is used to deliver an arrested after coming head in assisted breech delivery of chin to pubis rotated baby ?

        A:-Scanzoni maneuver

        B:-Pajot's maneuver

        C:-Prague maneuver

        D:-Kristellar maneuver

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question74:-Which is NOT a contraindication to vacuum extraction ?

        A:-Brow presentation

        B:-Fetal bleeding disorder or demineralization disorder

        C:-Previous fetal scalp sampling

        D:-Less than 34 weeks of gestation

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question75:-All the following are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Third-and fourth-degree lacerations at delivery are associated with an increased risk of fecal incontinence (OR 2-3)

        B:-Patients with occult anal sphincter tears are 8 times more likely to have fecal incontinence

        C:-There is sufficient evidence to support primary elective cesarean delivery for the purpose of preserving fecal continence

        D:-Both forceps and vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery significantly increase this risk, with vacuum being less traumatic than forceps

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question76:-Using WHO classification for Semen Analysis interpretation, choose the FALSE statement is

        A:-The normal lower limit for normal morphology is 4%

        B:-The normal lower limit for sperm motility is 32%

        C:-Viability should be at least 58%

        D:-The normal lower limit for sperm concentration is 39 million/mL

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question77:-Contraindications to using Gonadotropins for ovulation induction in infertile women include all EXCEPT

        A:-Uncontrolled thyroid and adrenal dysfunction

        B:-Hypogonadotropichypogonadism due to space occupying lesions

        C:-Sex hormone-dependent tumors of the reproductive tract and accecssory organs

        D:-Kallmann syndrome

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question78:-All the following are methods to decrease OHSS EXCEPT

        A:-HCG trigger

        B:-GnRH antagonists

        C:-Invitro oocyte maturation


        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question79:-All statements about heterotopic pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-1 in 30000 in spontaneous conceptions, as high as 1% with IVF treatment

        B:-Only 26% of heterotopic cases can be diagnosed with transvaginal US

        C:-Most often diagnosed in the first 5 to 8 weeks of gestation

        D:-After treatment of a heterotopic gestation, the overall delivery rate for the intrauterine pregnancy is only 10-20%

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question80:-All the following are independent prognostic variables in endometrial cancer EXCEPT

        A:-Myometrial invasion

        B:-Peritoneal cytology

        C:-Tumor size

        D:-Lymph node metastasis

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question81:-Find the INCORRECT statement regarding endometrial cancer.

        A:-Inactivation of the PTEN tumor-suppressor gene is the most common genetic defect in type I cancers

        B:-Type I cancers arise from its precursor Endometrial Intraepithelial Carcinoma (EIC)

        C:-Type II cancers frequently demonstrate alterations in HER2/neu,p53,p16,E-cadherin and loss of LOH

        D:-Type II endometrial cancer appears to be unrelated to high estrogen levels and often develops in nonobese women

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question82:-All are TRUE regarding Leiomyosarcoma EXCEPT

        A:-This malignancy has no relationship with parity

        B:-A history of prior pelvic radiation can be elicited in about 50% of women with uterine LMS

        C:-Surgery is the mainstay of treatment for uterine LMS

        D:-Retroperitoneal lymphatic spread is rare in women with early-stage disease and lymphadenectomy is not associated with a survival advantage

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question83:-All the following are TRUE about TTTS EXCEPT

        A:-Although growth discordance or growth restriction may be found with TTTS, these per se are not considered diagnostic criteria

        B:-TTTS is diagnosed in a monochorionicdiamnionic pregnancy when there is oligamnios SVP<2 cm in one sac and polyhydramnios SVP>8 in the other sac

        C:-Sonography surveillance of pregnancies at risk for TTTS should begin at 16 weeks and continue every 2 weeks

        D:-The discrepancies in amnionic fluid volumes of TTTS are also typically seen in Twin Anaemia Polycythemia Sequence (TAPS)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question84:-Find the FALSE statement regarding 2018 FIGO staging of cancer cervix.

        A:-Tumour of size ≥ 2 cm and < 4 cm confined to the cervix is stage IB2

        B:-Imaging and pathology can be used, where available, to supplement clinical findings with respect to tumor size and extent, in all stages

        C:-The involvement of lymph nodes are not part of staging

        D:-The lateral extent of the lesion is no longer considered

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question85:-The boundaries of paravesical space include all EXCEPT

        A:-The obliterated umbilical artery running along the bladder medially

        B:-The obturator internus muscle along the pelvic sidewall laterally

        C:-The uterosacral ligament posteriorly

        D:-The pubic symphysis anteriorly

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question86:-All are TRUE regarding serous borderline ovarian tumours EXCEPT

        A:-10% of all ovarian serous tumors are of borderline type and 50% occur before the age of 40 years

        B:-Up to 40% of serous borderline tumors are associated with spread beyond the ovary

        C:-Up to 10% of women with ovarian serous borderline tumors and extraovarian implants may have invasive implants

        D:-Borderline serous tumors may harbor foci of stromal microinvasion and if so, should be managed as aggressive serous carcinomas

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question87:-In Kyoto (Querlou and Morrow) classification, Nerve sparing Radical Hysterectomy is

        A:-Type B

        B:-Type C1

        C:-Type C2

        D:-Type D2

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question88:-All are TRUE about Germ cell tumours EXCEPT

        A:-In patients with stage IA dysgerminoma, unilateral oophorectomy alone results in a 5-year disease-free survival rate of greater than 95%

        B:-Patients with stage IA, grade 1 immature teratoma need 4 cycles of BEP adjuvant therapy after surgery

        C:-All patients with Endodermal Stromal Tumours (EST) should be treated with chemotherapy shortly after recovering from surgery ovarian dysfunction of failure

        D:-Transient ovarian failure is common with platinum-based chemotherapy for germ cell tumours and majority will have successful childbearing in the future

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question89:-All the following statements regarding Granulosa cell tumours of the ovary are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Endometrial cancer occurs in association with granulosa cell tumors in at least 5% of cases

        B:-25-50% of Granulosa cell tumours are associated with endometrial hyperplasia

        C:-Granulosa cell tumors may also produce androgens and cause virilization

        D:-Juvenile granulosa cell tumors of the ovary are rare and behaves more aggressively than the adult type

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question90:-All the following statements about intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-bile acids are cleared incompletely and accumulate in plasma but the cause is unclear

        B:-pruritus shows predilection for the soles and may precede laboratory findings by several weeks

        C:-total plasma concentrations of bilirubin exceed 8 mg/dL and serum transaminases exceed 500 in 30% patients

        D:-ursodeoxycholic acid relieves pruritus and improves fetal outcome better than steroids and cholestyramine

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question91:-All the statements about sickle cell anaemia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Sickle-cell trait does not appear to be associated with increased perinatal mortality, low birthweight or pregnancy-induced hypertension

        B:-In Sickle cell disease there is no categorical contraindication to vaginal delivery, and caesarean delivery is reserved for obstetrical indications

        C:-Routine prophylactic blood transfusions during labour is recommended to reduce painful crises in Sickle cell anaemia

        D:-Antenatal folic acid supplementation with 4 mg daily throughout pregnancy is needed to support rapid red blood cell turnover

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question92:-All the statements about thrombocytopenia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-A platelet count of < 80,000/L should trigger an evaluation for etiologies other than gestational thrombocytopenia

        B:-Hypertensive disorders account for 21% of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy

        C:-In ITP complicating pregnancy, therapy with steroids is considered if the platelet count is below 30,000 to 50,000/L

        D:-Maternal platelet counts have strong correlation with fetal platelet counts and caesarean delivery is recommended if platelet count is < 50,000 on fetal blood sampling

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question93:-All the following statements regarding diabetes in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Periconceptional HbA1C should be kept under 6.5% in pregestational diabetic women

        B:-MSAFP levels may be lower in diabetic pregnancies and the incidence of congenital cardiac anomalies is five fold in mothers with diabetes

        C:-Ultra short acting insulin analogues starts acting in 30 minutes, peaks in 2 hrs minutes and is good for preprandial glycemic control in pregnancy

        D:-Insulin therapy is typically added if fasting levels persistently exceed 95 mg/dL after medical nutrition therapy

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question94:-All the statements about thyroid in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Women with TPO antibodies are at increased risk for progression of thyroid disease and postpartum thyroiditis

        B:-It is recommended that women avoid pregnancy for 1 month after radioablative therapy with iodine 131

        C:-Pregnancy is associated with an increased thyroxine requirement in approximately a third of supplemented women

        D:-Prophylthiouracil (PTU) is preferred in pregnancy because it partially inhibits the conversion of T4 to T3 and crosses the placenta less readily than methimazole

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question95:-All the statements about SLE in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT

        A:-Fetal cell micro chimerism leads to the predilection for autoimmune disorders like SLE among women

        B:-In the presence of anti-Ro and Anti-La antibodies, the incidence of fetal myocarditis and heart block is as high as 20%

        C:-During pregnancy, lupus improves in a third of women, remains unchanged in a third and worsens in the remaining third

        D:-Hydroxychloroquine is not associated with congenital malformations and can be continued in pregnancy

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question96:-All are TRUE about antiphospholipid antibody syndrome EXCEPT

        A:-Asherson syndrome is a rapidly progressive thromboembolic disorder due to a cytokine storm seen in antiphospolipid antibody syndrome

        B:-Approximately 60 percent of patients with APS have a positive lupus anticoagulant LAC assay alone

        C:-Heparin binds to beta 2 glycoprotein I and prevents binding of anticardiolipin andanti-beta 2 glycoprotein I antibodies to the syncytiotrophoblasts

        D:-Treatment using aspirin, anticoagulation and close monitoring has increased live birth rates to more than 70 percent in women with APS

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question97:-All are TRUE about management of obstetric haemorrhage EXCEPT

        A:-The most important mechanism of action with internal iliac artery ligation is an 85-percent reduction in pulse pressure in those arteries distal to the ligation

        B:-ROTEM or TEG cannot diagnose coagulopathies stemming from platelet dysfunction or anti platelet drugs

        C:-Each single-donor apheresis six-unit bag raises the platelet count by approximately 5000/L

        D:-Dilutional coagulopathy that is clinically indistinguishable from DIC is the most frequent coagulation defect found with blood loss and multiple transfusions

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question98:-All are TRUE about USS features of Placenta Accreta Spectrum (PAS) EXCEPT

        A:-loss of the normal hypoechoicretroplacentalzone between the placenta and uterus

        B:-placental vascular lacunae or lakes

        C:-distance between the uterine serosa-bladder wall interface and the retroplacental vessels measures < 10 mm

        D:-placental bulging into the posterior bladder wall

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question99:-USS has a sensitivity of ____________ in suspected abruptio placenta.





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question100:-All are TRUE about COVID-19 in pregnancy EXCEPT

        A:-It is associated with an almost three times greater risk of preterm birth (17%)

        B:-Majority of pregnant women (74%) may be asymptomatic

        C:-ICU admissions are not more common in pregnant women compared to nonpregnant women of the same age

        D:-Risk factors associated with hospital admissions include older age, obesity, diabetes and hypertension

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

More OBG Question Answers- Click here

obstetrics_and_gynaecology Question Paper with Answer.pdf


Post a Comment

Popular posts from this blog


Panchayath Raj related and General questions for PDO Recruitment exam preparation CLICK HERE FOR PDO PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 01-05  PART II RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ QUESTIONS - PAGE NO. 6-10 CLICK HERE FOR PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 11-14- General Kannada CLICK HERE FOR PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 15-19- General English CLICK HERE FOR PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 20-23- General Knowledge MORE PDO EXAM QUESTIONS 1. NGO can run by A. One pioneer B. Single trustee C. A board of trustees D. All above Answer:  D. All above 2. Meaning of BPL in the context of rural development in India is A. Bellow Poverty Line  B. Bellow Passing Level C. Backward & Poor Level  D. Backward & Poverty Line Answer:  A. Bellow Poverty Line  3. This programme is related with farmers‟ training A. FTEP  B. FTC  C. KVK  D. All above Answer:  D. All above 4. Taluka Panchayat is also known as  A. Pancha


The PDO (Panchayath Development Officer) and Panchayath Secretary Examinations will be conducted by Karnataka Examination Authority. The Online registrations will be starting from 16/09/2016. Most candidates are requested us to provide previous question papers of PDO Examination. The Question papers of PDO Examination conducted in the year 2011 is published here. For more PDO Exam Questions Click here PART 1 COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS PDO Exam Question Paper Page 2 PDO Exam Question Paper Page 3 PDO Exam Question Paper Page 4 PDO Exam Question Paper Page 5 CLICK HERE FOR PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 01-05  PART II RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ QUESTIONS - PAGE NO. 6-10 CLICK HERE FOR PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 11-14- General Kannada CLICK HERE FOR PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 15-19- General English CLICK HERE FOR PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 20-23- General Knowledge MORE PDO EXAM QUESTIONS Click here to Join Our Facebook group to ge


KARNATAKA STATE OPEN UNIVERSITY (KSOU) Click  the following links to download old question papers of 3rd Year BA Examination 3rdd Year BA Question Papers-   Jul 2009      Exam 3rd Year BA Question Papers-    Oct 2009    Exam 3rd Year BA Question Papers-  2010       Exam 3rd Year BA Question Papers-    2011    Exam KSOU BA QUESTION PAPERS KSOU QUESTION PAPERS BA QUESTION PAPERS More  BA Question papers for download For more details  click here  or visit  


PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT OFFICER EXAM QUESTION PAPER PART II RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ QUESTIONS Published @ The Part 2 Questions of PDO Examination held in the year 2011 from Question No. 31 to 60 is uploaded here. Click on the following files to download PDO Rural Development and Panchayath Raj Questions Section Question  paper- Page No 6to 10 For more PDO Exam Questions Click here PART II RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ QUESTIONS PDO Exam Question Paper Page 6 PDO Exam Question Paper Page 7


MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD GOVERNMENT OF INDIA STAFF NURSE RECRUITMENT QUESTION PAPER FOR DOWNLOAD Click the following link to download Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam Question paper in pdf. format 1. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started in the year : A) 1905 AD B) 1920 AD C)l 9 3 0 AD D) 1942 AD 4. The currency of Japan is : A)Yen B) Pound C) Yuan D) Peso 9. Identify the part of Human Stomach which connects/joins with Oesophagus A) Fundus B)Cardia C) Body D) Pylorus 13. What is the chemical name of Aspirin (ASA) ? A) Acetic Salicyclic Acid B  Acetyle Salicyclic Acid C) Acetone Salicyclic Acid D) Amide Salicyclic Acid 16. Mohan and Sonan, together can do a job in 12 days. Sohan alone can do this job in 28 davs. In how Many days can Mohan alone do this job ? A)21 days B) 16 days C) 24 days D) 20 days RRB STAFF NURSE QUESTION PAPER WITH ANSWER- CLICK HERE CLICK HERE FOR RRB STAFF NURSE QUESTION PAPER 2015


KARNATAKA STATE OPEN UNIVERSITY Click  the following links to download old question papers of 2nd Year BA Examination Published @ 2nd Year BA Question Papers-  Jul 2009     Exam 2nd Year BA Question Papers-  Oct 2009  Exam 2nd Year BA Question Papers-  2010     Exam 2nd Year BA Question Papers-  2011  Exam KSOU BA QUESTION PAPERS KSOU QUESTION PAPERS BA QUESTION PAPERS


PDO EXAM QUESTION PAPER GENERAL ENGLISH QUESTIONS Published @ The General English Section Questions of PDO Examination held in the year 2011 from Question No. 91 to 120 is uploaded here. Click on the following files to download PDO General English Section Question  paper- Page No 15 to 19. PDO Question paper Page No. 15


PDO EXAM QUESTION PAPER GENERAL KANNADA QUESTIONS Published @ The General Kannada Section Questions of PDO Examination held in the year 2011 from Question No. 61 to 90 is uploaded here. Click on the following files to download PDO General Kannada Section Question  paper- Page No 11 to 14. PDO Exam Question Paper Page 11 PDO Exam Question Paper Page 12 PDO Exam Question Paper Page 13 PDO Exam Question Paper Page 14 CLICK HERE FOR PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 01-05  PART II RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ QUESTIONS - PAGE NO. 6-10 CLICK HERE FOR PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 11-14- General Kannada CLICK HERE FOR PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 15-19- General English CLICK HERE FOR PDO QUESTION PAPER PAGE NO. 15-19- General Knowledge MORE PDO EXAM QUESTIONS


Padarth Vigyan evam Ayurvedka Itihas - Paper I  Question paper Padarth Vigyan evam Ayurvedka Itihas - Paper II  Question paper Sanskrit  Question paper Kriya Sharir - Paper I  Question paper Kriya Sharir - Paper II  Question paper Rachna Sharir - Paper I  Question paper Maulik Siddhant Evam Ashtang Hridaya  Question paper


KUVEMPU UNIVERSITY QUESTION PAPERS Uploaded by FIRST YEAR BA HISTORY QUESTION PAPERS OF 2008, 2009, 2010 EXAMINATION Click here  to download BA History Question Papers of Examination held in 2008 Click here  to download BA  History    Question Papers of Examination held in 2009 Click here  to download BA  History    Question Papers of Examination held in 2010 CLICK HERE FOR BA HISTORY QUESTION PAPERS OF EXAMINATION HELD IN THE YEAR 2011, 2012, 2013, AND 2014 For more details  click here  or visit