Pulmonary Medicine Lecturer Recruitment Exam Question paper

Question1:-Which of the following river is known as 'Sorrow of Bengal' ?
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question2:-The best indicator of economic development of any country is
 A:-Per capita income
 D:-Gross production
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question3:-Sumita Sanyal was associated with which field ?
 D:-Film Industry
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question4:-The headquarters of UNESCO
 B:-New York
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question5:-Year of Poona Pact
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question6:-Founder of Sadhujana Paripalana Sangham
 A:-Sree Narayana Guru
 B:-Pandit Karuppan
 D:-Thycaud Ayya
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question7:-What is the full form of NCERT ?
 A:-National Council for Educational Resources and Teaching
 B:-National Council of Employees Remedial Teaching
 C:-National Council of Educational Research and Training
 D:-National Council for Employees Research and Training
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question8:-The `18^(th)` anniversary of Kargil Vijay Diwas has celebrated on which day in India ?
 A:-2017 July 22
 B:-2017 June 22
 C:-2017 July 26
 D:-2017 June 26
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question9:-Who issued the famous 'Kundara Proclamation' ?
 A:-Pazhassi Raja
 B:-Velu Thampi Dalawa
 C:-Marthanda Varma
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question10:-'Jathikummi' was the famous work of
 A:-Dr. Palpu
 B:-V. T. Bhattathirippad
 D:-Pandit Karuppan
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question11:-Atma Vidya Sangham was founded by
 B:-Sahodaran Ayyappan
 C:-Velukkutty Arayan
 D:-Brahmananda Swami Sivayogi
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question12:-Temple Entry Proclamation was issued by
 A:-Marthanda Varma
 D:-Sree Chithira Thirunal Balarama Varma
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question13:-In the National Flag which colour is used in the wheel ?
 B:-Navy Blue
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question14:-First Five Year Plan was started in which year ?
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question15:-First Regular Indian Censes was conducted in
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question16:-2017 World Athletic Championship was held at
 A:-New York
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question17:-Founder of Travancore Muslim Mahajana Sabha
 A:-Vakkom Adbul Khadar Moulavi
 B:-Khan Abdul Gafferkhan
 C:-Sayyed Ahamed Khan
 D:-Muhammed Abdu Rahman Saheb
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question18:-Who was honoured with the title 'Bharata Kesari' by the President of India ?
 A:-Sree Narayana Guru
 B:-Mannathu Padmanabha Pillai
 C:-Kumara Guru
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question19:-The famous tourist centre Ajanta is situated at
 C:-Madhya Pradesh
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question20:-1857 Revolt was started at

 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question21:-Alpha 1 anti trypsine deficiency is caused by mutation in the gene
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question22:-At the end of a deep breath what percent of lung volume is air ?
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question23:-Fibre types in respiratory muscles that help in sneezing and coughing is
 A:-Type I
 B:-Type IIa
 C:-Type IIb
 D:-Type IIx
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question24:-Most common pattern of ILD in Rheumatoid arthritis is
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question25:-Fall in FEV1 in non-smoking adults are at the rate of
 A:-15 ml/year
 B:-30 ml/year
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question26:-All are true regarding COPD exacerbations, except
 A:-Best predictor of future exacerbations
 B:-More common in patients with chronic cough and sputum production
 C:-Spirometry during the acute exacerbation is usually helpful in predicting the severity and duration
 D:-Many of these eventually resolve without specific treatment
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question27:-All are causes of exacerbations of asthma, except
 A:-Rhino virus
 B:-Hemophilus influenza
 D:-Para influenza virus
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question28:-Anti inflammatory action of theophyllins are mediated through
 B:-Histone deacetylase2
 C:-All of the above
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question29:-NSAID well tolerated in Aspirin induced asthma is
 D:-Sodium salicylate
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question30:-Prevalence of exercise induced asthma may be more in the following group
 B:-Elite athletes
 C:-All of the above
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question31:-The most effective drug in exercise induced asthma is
 A:-Beta adrenergic agonists
 B:-Chromolin sodium
 D:-Leukotriene antagonists
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question32:-Pathognomonic of ABPA among the following is
 A:-Elevated aspergillus specific IgE
 B:-Elevated aspergillus specific IgG
 C:-Charcot-Leyden crystals
 D:-Hyphae filled mucous plug
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question33:-Unilateral vocal cord paralysis causes
 A:-Variable intrathoracic obstruction
 B:-Variable extra thoracic obstruction
 C:-Fixed intrathoracic obstruction
 D:-Fixed extra thoracic obstruction
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question34:-Most common type of benign tracheal tumour is
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question35:-All are true in Vocal Cord Dysfunction, except
 B:-Symptoms may remit without treatment
 C:-Presence of bronchial hyper responsiveness
 D:-Normal alveolar arterial gradient
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question36:-F508 del mutation in cystic fibrosis results in
 A:-Block in processing
 B:-Block in regulation
 C:-Altered conductance
 D:-Reduced synthesis
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question37:-Risk factors for liver disease in cystic fibrosis are all the following, except
 A:-Meconium ileus
 B:-PiZ heterozygous state
 C:-TGF beta-1 polymorphism
 D:-Female sex
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question38:-Infections with the following organism is associated with development of bronchiectasis.
 A:-Streptococcus pneumoniae
 B:-Haemophilus influenzae
 C:-Staphylococcus aureus
 D:-Morexella catarrhalis
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question39:-Most common form of ILD is
 A:-Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question40:-Differentiating feature between RB-ILD and DIP is
 A:-Age of onset
 B:-Involvement of alveoli
 C:-Smoking score more than 30 pack years
 D:-Golden brown pigments in macrophages
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question41:-Detergent workers disease is caused by
 A:-Cladosporium spp.
 B:-Pseudomonas spp.
 C:-Aureobasidium spp.
 D:-Bacillus subtilis
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question42:-Shrinking lung syndrome is seen in
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question43:-All are true regarding Rheumatoid pleural effusion, except
 A:-Low sugar
 C:-pH more than 7.2
 D:-Exudative effusion
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question44:-Radiologic appearance of PLCH include all, except
 A:-Mid and lower zone involvement
 B:-Ill defined nodules
 C:-Cysts of bizarre shape
 D:-Pleural thickening
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question45:-All are true regarding Alveolar microlithiasis, except
 A:-Autosomal recessive disorder
 B:-Calcium metabolism disorder
 C:-Asymptomatic with abnormal CXR

 D:-Mutation in Type II b sodium phosphate cotransporter gene
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question46:-In which year Robert Koch received Nobel Prize for his contribution in the field of Tuberculosis ?
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question47:-National Tuberculosis programme was started in India in the year
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question48:-Swimming pool granuloma is caused by
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question49:-All are solid culture media in Tuberculosis, except
 A:-L-J medium
 B:-Loeffler serum slope
 C:-Middlebrooks medium
 D:-Pawlowskys medium
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question50:-Most common form of skeletal tuberculosis is
 A:-Tuberculosis of hip
 B:-Tuberculosis of knee joint
 C:-Spinal tuberculosis
 D:-Tuberculosis of shoulder joint
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question51:-Which of the following is unusual in Churg stauss syndrome ?
 B:-Elevated ESR
 C:-Elevated CRP
 D:-Elevated Eosinophil Count
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question52:-Which is not true in chylothorax ?
 A:-Lymphocyte predominant
 C:-Elevated LDH
 D:-Pleural fluid triglyceride more than 110 mg/dl
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question53:-Triad of Yellow nail syndrome consists of all, except
 A:-Nail changes
 B:-Pleural effusion
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question54:-Most common lung cancer type associated with pleural involvement
 A:-Squamous cell carcinoma
 C:-Large cell carcinoma
 D:-Small cell carcinoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question55:-All are true regarding pleural effusion associated with mesothelioma, except
 A:-Presence of hyaluronic acid is diagnostic
 B:-Low pH
 C:-Low sugar
 D:-LDH concentration greater than that of carcinoma of pleura
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question56:-Haller index suggesting significant sternal depression in Pectus excavatum is
 B:-More than 3.25
 C:-Less than 3.25
 D:-Less than 2.5
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question57:-Chronic mountain sickness is characterized by all the features, except
 A:-Dyspnoea on exertion
 B:-Extreme polycythemia
 C:-Elevated haematocrit
 D:-Pulmonary hypertension
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question58:-EGFR mutations positive lung cancers have all the following features, except
 A:-Exclusively in NSCLC
 B:-More in women
 C:-More in smokers
 D:-20-30% Asian lung cancer patients
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question59:-Carcinoid syndrome is seen in all, except
 A:-Carcinoid tumours
 B:-Large cell carcinoma
 C:-Squamous cell carcinoma
 D:-Small cell carcinoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question60:-Hypercalcemia most frequently occur in
 A:-Squamous cell cancer
 C:-Small cell lung cancer
 D:-Large cell carcinoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question61:-Spherical pneumonia is associated with
 A:-Streptococcal pneumonia
 B:-Haemophilus influenza
 C:-Coxiella burnetti
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question62:-Which is not true about pneumatoceles ?
 A:-Seen in young children
 B:-Develop late in the course of pneumonia
 C:-Thin walled air filled spaces
 D:-Disappear in a few months
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question63:-Liver function abnormalities and clinical hepatitis in atypical pneumonia usually suggest
 B:-Mycoplasma pneumonia
 C:-Legionella pneumonia
 D:-Chlamydia pneumonia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question64:-Lemmiere syndrome is caused by
 C:-Prevotella oralis
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question65:-Important infection in post transplant patients, beyond one month post surgery is
 B:-P. jiroveci
 C:-A. fumigates
 D:-Nocardia asteroides
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question66:-Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones is
 A:-Inhibition of protein synthesis
 B:-Interfere with DNA gyrase/topoisomerase IV leading to cell wall lysis
 C:-LPS mediated increased cell wall permeability to antibiotics
 D:-Both (a) and (c)
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question67:-Most common site for aspiration pneumonia is
 A:-Superior segment of RLL
 B:-Posterior segment of LUL
 C:-Medial segment of RML
 D:-Superior segment of LLL
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question68:-Most likely diagnosis in an edentulous patient presenting with a cavitating lesion in CXR in all, except
 A:-Bronchial obstruction
 B:-Pulmonary embolus
 C:-Septic embolus
 D:-Lung abscess
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question69:-Diagnostic threshold for BAL in nosocomial pneumonia is
 A:-`10^(5)` CFU/ml
 B:- `10^(3)` CFU/ml
 C:-`10^(4) ` CFU/ml
 D:-` 10^(6) ` CFU/ml
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question70:-Which of the following mycobacteriae is not associated with human infection ?
 C:-M.bovis BCG

 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question71:-Droplet nuclei are not the mode of transmission among the following diseases
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question72:-Most common form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis is
 A:-Pleural effusion
 B:-Spinal tuberculosis
 C:-Genitourinary TB
 D:-Lymphnode TB
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question73:-All are true about Xpert-MTB-RIF, except
 A:-Nucleic acid amplification test
 B:-Sophisticated laboratory needed, not useful in resource poor settings
 C:-Simultaneously detects RIF resistance
 D:-Specificity 90-100%
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question74:-Diagnostic test of choice in pneumocystis jerovecii, is
 A:-Diff-Quick stain
 B:-Induced sputum with direct immunofluorescent staining
 C:-Wright's stain
 D:-Toluidine blue O
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question75:-Mechanism of Bleomycin lung toxicity include all, except
 A:-Generation of oxygen free radicals
 B:-Direct effects on DNA
 C:-Absence of enzyme Bleomycin hydrolase
 D:-Inhibition of enzyme Bleomycin hydrolase
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question76:-Which is not correct about omalizumab ?
 A:-Recombinant humanised antibody
 B:-Dose dependent on serum level of IgE alone
 C:-Indicated in moderate to severe allergic asthma
 D:-Should not be initiated at acute stage of asthma
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question77:-IRIS can occur in all the following conditions in a patient with HIV, except
 A:-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
 C:-Fungal infections
 D:-Bacterial pneumonia
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question78:-Permissive hyper capnoea is used in all the following, except
 A:-Acute lung injury
 B:-Increased intracerebral pressure
 D:-Neonatal respiratory failure
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question79:-Oral bio-availability is maximum for which among the following inhaled steroids ?
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question80:-All are features of chronic eosinophilic pneumonia, except
 A:-Elevated eosinophil count in blood and BAL
 B:-Reverse pulmonary edema pattern in CXR
 C:-Male sex predominance
 D:-Presence of interstitial fibrosis pathologic hall mark
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question81:-Chronic pleuritic pain is characteristic in
 A:-Lung cancer
 C:-Pulmonary embolism
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question82:-Absolute contraindication for argonplasma coagulation is
 A:-Implantable defibrillator
 B:-`FiO_(2)` less than 0.4
 C:-Major airway bleed
 D:-Post infectious airway stenosis
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question83:-Elevated DLCo in asthma is due to
 A:-Associated large lung volume
 B:-Increased perfusion of well ventilated upper zones
 C:-None of the above
 D:-both (1) & (2)
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question84:-Varenicline helps in smoking cessation by a) Being partial agonist of nicotinic cholinergic receptor b) Blocks
effects of smoke on nicotine receptor c) As a result of receptor blockade nicotine withdrawal symptoms are relieved d)
Desire to smoke is reduced
 A:-a, b and c
 B:-b, c and d
 C:-a, b and d
 D:-a, c and d
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question85:-Which is not true about Pancoast syndrome ?
 A:-Most common initial symptom is shoulder pain
 B:-Intrinsic muscles of the hand may be involved
 C:-Associated with superior sulcus tumour
 D:-CT is superior imaging modality
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question86:-Malignancy commonly associated with airway metastasis is
 A:-Prostatic cancer
 B:-Colon cancer
 C:-Osteogenic sarcoma

 D:-Ca. Tongue
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question87:-Criteria for diagnosing a definite Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia include all, except
 A:-Recurrent spontaneous nose bleeds
 B:-Mucocutaneous telangiectasia
 C:-No first degree relative involved
 D:-Visceral involvement
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question88:-Skin manifestation that is specific for sarcoidosis
 A:-Erythema nodosum
 B:-Lupus pernio
 C:-Subcutaneous nodules
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question89:-Not true about Idiopathic Pulmonary Hemosiderosis, from the following is
 A:-Predominantly disease of children
 B:-Recurrent haemoptysis
 C:-Renal involvement is common
 D:-Histology of lung shows bland alveolar haemorrhage with hemosiderin accumulation
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question90:-The commonest type of lung carcinoma seen in women and non-smokers
 B:-Large cell carcinoma
 C:-Small cell carcinoma
 D:-Squamous cell carcinoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question91:-The commonest malignant tumour seen in asbestos worker
 A:-Bronchogenic carcinoma
 B:-Gastric carcinoma
 C:-Glioblastoma multiforme
 D:-Malignant mesothelioma
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question92:-Cushing syndrome is usually associated with all, except
 A:-Carcinoid tumour
 B:-Squamous cell carcinoma
 D:-Small cell carcinoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question93:-Most common radiological pattern associated with Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma
 A:-Multiple nodular lesions
 B:-Consolidative pattern
 C:-Perihilar opacity with cavitation
 D:-Single nodular lesions
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question94:-The commonest type of emphysema
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question95:-The pneumoconiosis which can be seen commonly in tobacco smokers is
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question96:-The type of pneumoconiosis in which eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes is seen in chest X-ray is
 C:-Coalworkers pneumoconiosis
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question97:-Bronchial carcinoma can be associated with all except
 A:-Acanthosis nigricans
 B:-Myesthenia gravis
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question98:-All are true about asbestosis except
 A:-Asteriod bodies are characteristic
 B:-Begins in the lower lobe and subpleurally
 C:-Marked diffuse pulmonary interstial fibrosis
 D:-Pleural plaques most common manifestation
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question99:-All are true about silicosis except
 A:-Most prevalent chronic occupational disease in the world
 B:-Quartz is most commonly implicated form
 C:-Initial lesions tend to localize in the lower lung zone
 D:-There is no known clear association of silica and development of lung cancer
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question100:-Bedaquiline is not started in MDR TB in all the situations, except
 A:-Pyrazinamide and at least 4 second line drugs are not available according to sensitivity tests
 B:-Uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia requiring medication
 C:-Prolonged QT interval (more than 450 ms)
 D:-Presence of chorioretinitis
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Exam: Senior Lecturer in Tuberculosis and Respiratory
Medicine(Pulmonary Medicine)
Kerala Public Service Commission


Question No. 1. A node can be:
A. a server
B. a workstation
C. a printer
D. all of the above

Question No. 2. Software development life cycle is
A. the life-time of a software
B. stages of software development
C. when a software is removed
D. none of the above

Question No. 3. The number of bits the processor can transmit at a given time is called:
A. Bus width
B. Word size
C. Access time
D. Channel speed

Question No. 4. The ______________ interprets each instruction issued by a program and then initiates the
appropriate action to carry out the instruction.
A. arithmetic logic unit (ALU)
B. control unit

C. system unit
D. memory

Question No. 5. The most widely used local bus is:

Question No. 6. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The digitizing tablet is an input device
B. The light pen is not an input device
C. The mouse is an output device
D. The monitor is not an output device.

Question No. 7. The type of education in which students learn by using and completing exercises with instructional software is called:
A. Computer based training (CBT)
B. Distance learning
C. Web based training (WBT)
D. Computer aided graphics

Question No. 8. Which of the following lists the different type of networks in ascending geographical area?


Question No. 9. Mass produced, copyrighted software that meets the
needs of a variety of users is called:
A. Custom software
B. Ready made software
C. Freeware
D. Shareware

Question No. 10. Which of the following is true?
A. The bootstrap loader resides in the RAM
B. The bootstrap loader locate and execute the kernel
C. The bootstrap is executed when the system is shut down
D. The bootstrap is a virus that attacks the operating system


RCUB image
M. A. in English 2012-13(RCU New Syllabus):
Model Question Paper
1.6 Basic Core
Introduction to the ‘Study’ of Language and Literature:
Language Skills, Research Skills and Literary Historiography
Duration: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
Note :
Attempt all questions
Q. I. Answer the following questions in a word or a phrase or a sentence :
1. What is scanning?
2. What is inferential comprehension?
3. What is an index of a book?
4. What does a thesaurus contain?
5. Name any one of the advantages of being into the canon.
6. What is the difference in the meaning of the word „literature‟ in the expressions „Folk Literature‟ and „Tourist Literature‟?
7. What, according to Wilson, is the Historical Interpretation of Literature?
8. What basic assumption about literary tradition informs the essays of T. S. Eliot and Herald Bloom?
9. Prune the redundant phrase in the following sentence :
Many uneducated citizens who have never attended school continue to vote for better schools.
10.Punctuate the following :
exhausted from answering the reporters questions Congressman Ellis squared her shoulders gritted her teeth and angrily retorted thats none of your business you morons.
(2X10 = 20 Marks)
Q. No. II. Write short notes on any six of the following:
1. Internet as a Research Resource
2. Annotated Bibliography
3. Primary Sources
4. Hazards of Periodization
5. „Extrinsic‟ Approaches to Literary Historiography
6. Western debates around the concept of tradition
7. Reading Poetry
8. Evaluating Sources
(6X5 = 30 Marks)
Q. No. III.
A. Given below are the sentences of a jumbled paragraph.
1) Rearrange the sentences and rewrite them to form a coherent paragraph.
2) Identify the topic sentence of the paragraph and underline it.
3) List the words / phrases in each sentence which served as clues / linkers to help you
arrange the sentences in the order you have chosen.
4) Say whether each of the clues / linkers you have chosen is overt / covert.
1. He flew hours before reaching his target.
2. On the day of execution, Colonel, Paul W. Tibbets took off at a quarter to
three in the morning.
3. The bombing of Hiroshima was executed after meticulous planning.
4. Thus the new nuclear age had begun, not with a bang but with a whimper.
5. But there was no bang or an explosion. Only a brownish-purple mist all
6. Then, the bomb was set to explode 2000 ft. above the town.
(5 Marks)
B. Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the questions set on it.
“It‟s a boy!” - magical words that give happiness to the entire family, to the motherin-law,
and to the mother who gave birth to the baby-boy.
“It‟s only a girl.” – words of dejection and disappointment that makes the entire
family unhappy.
That‟s our mind-set. We do not celebrate girls!
Even in our mythology, only the birth of boys is mentioned. Parvati gave birth to two sons. Sita had her twins; Kunti and Madri produced the Pandavas and Karna; even goddesses never gave birth to daughters! Where have all the daughters gone?
In our society, women who do not produce male children are considered incomplete, inadequate, unluckyand even cursed. A male offspring is a must. Conventional reasons are often cited for the baby-child fixation, like continuing the lineage and the family name, carrying on the family business, inheriting property, supporting parents in their old age, performing the last rites, etc., whether they are
relevant or not in our present day situation. The absence of a son is more keenly felt in rural areas because of such conventions as only the male-child can represent the family at temples, religious ceremonies, and other important social gatherings.

Deep-rooted prejudices reinforce our attitudes towards girls. Even now, most Hindus believe that only the male can light the funeral pyre and guide the departing soul to heaven. It is also said that even a king will become a pauper if he has five daughters! Staying with their daughter after her marriage is considered to be below
the dignity of parents. That‟s our mind-set.
The situation may be changing but the change is very slow. The issue of sons or daughters continues to be important in our social structure formulated by men for their own advantage. That is irrespective of socio-economic status or caste or religion, the reaction to the arrival of a girl-child is : “It‟s only a girl” or “Oh! Another Girl, if the earlier one too was a girl.
1. What is the reaction of a mother-in-law to the birth of a girl-child in a family?
2. Though the mother-in-law is a woman, why is she not happy about the birth of a girlchild?
3. What are the conventional reasons given for preferring baby boys?
4. Why is staying with one‟s daughter after her marriage considered not desirable?
5. Why does the issue of sons or daughters continue to be important in our society?
(5 Marks)
Q. No. IV
A. Make notes on the following passage :
Indian English literature began as an interesting by product of an eventful encounter in the late 18th century between a vigorous and enterprising Britain and a stagnant and chaotic India. The first problem that confronts the historian of this literature is to define its nature and scope clearly. The question has been made rather complicated owing to two factors: first, this of writing has, from time to time, been designated variously as
„Indo Anglican literature‟, „Indian Writing in English‟ and „Indo English literature‟;
secondly, the failure to make clear-cut distinction has also led to a confusion between
categories such as „Anglo-Indian literature‟, literature in the Indian languages
translated into English and original composition in English by Indians.
Strictly speaking, Indian English literature may be defined as literature written originally
in English by authors Indian by birth, or nationality. It is clear that neither „Anglo-Indian
literature‟, nor literal translations by others can legitimately form part of this literature.
Kipling, Forster, F.W. Steel, John Masters, Paul, Scott, M.M. Kaye, and many others
have all written about India but their work obviously belongs to British literature.
Similarly translations from the Indian languages into English cannot also form part of
Indian English literature except when they are creative translations by the authors
Another problem which the historian of this literature has to face is that of choosing
from among the various appellations given to it from time to time – viz., „Indo- Anglian
literature‟, „Indian Writing in English‟, „Indo- English literature‟ and „Indian English
literature‟. The Sahitya Akademi has recently accepted „Indian English Literature‟ as
the most suitable appellation for this body of writing. The term emphasizes two
significant ideas: first that this literature constitutes one of the many streams that join
the great ocean called Indian literature, which though written in different languages,
has an unmistakable unity; and secondly, that it is an inevitable product of the
nativization of the English languages to express the Indian sensibility. Nevertheless, by
whatever name Indian English literature is called, it remains a literary phenomenon
worthy of serious scrutiny.
(An excerpt from M. K. Naik, History of Indian English Literature)
(5 Marks)
Imagine that your teacher wants you to familiarize yourself with the history of Indian English
literature. He tells you what books you should look for in the library. This is what he
recommends : “K. R. S. Iyengar‟s Indian Writing in English is the first ever history of Indian
English literature. This comprehensive study was published in 1962 by the London branch of
Asia Publishing House. However for an official history you must read Prof. M. K. Naik‟s A
History of Indian English Literature published by Sahitya Akademi in 1982. Recently a sequel to
this entitled Indian English Literature 1980 – 2000 has come out and this is written by Dr. Naik in
collaboration with Shyamala A. Naraya. The sequel is published by Pencraft International, Delhi
in the first year of the new millennium. For a foreigner‟s account read William Walsh‟s Indian
Writing in English published in 1990 by an England based publishing house Longman Group UK
Limited. In addition there are several survey articles and I would recommend just three. They
are C. D. Narasimhaiah‟s “Indian Writing in English” in Journal of Commonwealth literature in its
July issue of 1969. I‟m sorry I don‟t remember the page numbers. Second one is by John B.
Alphonso-Karkala‟s “Indo-English Literature in the 19th Century” published in the Literary Halfyearly
in 1970. The last one is Meenakshi Mukherjee‟s survey “Indo-Anglian Literature 1947 –
72” published in The Indian P. E. N. in its fourth issue of forty ninth volume. Yes, I remember the
page numbers too. It is 9 through 14.” Present his suggestions in the form of a bibliography.
(5 Marks)
Q. No. IV. Analyse the use of diction, syntax, and imagery in the following passage.
Examine whether they have been integrated into the theme of the passage.
COKETOWN, to which Messrs. Bounderby and Gradgrind now walked, was a triumph of
fact; it had no greater taint of fancy in it than Mrs. Gradgrind herself. Let us strike the
key-note, Coketown, before pursuing our tune.
It was a town of red brick, or of brick that would have been red if the smoke and ashes
had allowed it; but as matters stood, it was a town of unnatural red and black like the
painted face of a savage. It was a town of machinery and tall chimneys, out of which
interminable serpents of smoke trailed themselves for ever and ever, and never got
uncoiled. It had a black canal in it, and a river that ran purple with ill-smelling dye, and
vast piles of building full of windows where there was a rattling and a trembling all day
long, and where the piston of the steam-engine worked monotonously up and down, like
the head of an elephant in a state of melancholy madness. It contained several large
streets all very like one another, and many small streets still more like one another,
inhabited by people equally like one another, who all went in and out at the same hours,
with the same sound upon the same pavements, to do the same work, and to whom
every day was the same as yesterday and to-morrow, and every year the counterpart of
the last and the next. …

You saw nothing in Coketown but what was severely workful. If the members of a
religious persuasion built a chapel there-as the members of eighteen religious
persuasions had done-they made it a pious warehouse of red brick, with sometimes (but
this is only in highly ornamental examples) a bell in a birdcage on the top of it. The
solitary exception was the New Church; a stuccoed edifice with a square steeple over
the door, terminating in four short pinnacles like florid wooden legs. All the public
inscriptions in the town were painted alike, in severe characters of black and white. The
jail might have been the infirmary, the infirmary might have been the jail, the town-hall
might have been either, or both, or anything else, for anything that appeared to the
contrary in the graces of their construction. Fact, fact, fact, everywhere in the material
aspect of the town; fact, fact, fact, everywhere in the immaterial. The M'Choakumchild
school was all fact, and the school of design was all fact, and the relations between
master and man were all fact, and everything was fact between the lying-in hospital and
the cemetery, and what you couldn't state in figures, or show to be purchaseable in the
cheapest market and saleable in the dearest, was not, and never should be, world
without end, Amen.
(10 Marks)


M. A. in English 2012 13 (RCU New Syllabus):
Model Question Paper
Paper 3.6 Basic Course in English Literature (OEC)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks:
Instruction : Attempt all questions
Q. I. Answer the following questions in a word or a phrase or a sentence :
1. Explain theirony in the first line of the poem "Telephone Conversation" ("The price seemed reasonable, location / Indifferent") in a sentence.
2. What does the expression ‘Advertising only for a better choice.’ Mean in the poem ‘Matrimonials’?
3. Which poetic device is extensively used in the poem ‘Writing a Curriculum Vitae’?
(Simile / Alliteration / Contrast)
4. How do, according to the narrator of the poem ‘Bankers are Just Like Anybody Else’, most bankers get to dwell in marble halls?

5. What is wrong with the expression ‘Just now only I will do it’ in the poem
‘Goodbye Party for Miss Pushpa T. S.’?
6. Why did the artist in the story ‘Face of Judas’ fear that his masterpiece would
remain unfinished?
7. What, according to Shaw, would his wife think if he were to speak to her as carefully as a public speaker speaking to a large audience?
8. What are the possible meanings of the sentence ‘We only can guess’.
9. What according to Orwell is the best way to get rid of fabricated phrases?
10.What, according to Narayan, is common between Bharat English and the Madras handloom check shirt?
(10X2 = 20 Marks)
Q. II. Answer all the questions:
1. Write a Curriculum Vitae with appropriate covering letter tailored to the
following job requirement:
A nongovernmental organization is looking for a person to head a
Rural Development Project near Belagavi.
2. We use a lot of standard phrases when talking on the phone. Say which of the
following are (1) polite enquiry, (2) indicating you are ready to finish, (3)
asking the person to wait, (4) asking to speak to someone and (5) saying the
line is bad or busy
a. Thank you for calling.
b. How are you?
c. I’m sorry I can’t hear you clearly.
d. Could you just hold the line please?
e. Could I speak to Mr. Rao?
f. May I know who I’m talking to?
g. Is Mr. Mehta available please?
h. It was very nice talking to you.
i. Could you repeat that please?
j. Right then …
3. Imagine you have to interview the M. P. of your area. List the ten to twelve
questions you would want to put to him in a Television Interview.
4. Correct the errors in the following sentences :
a. His wife was cooking nicely
b. I saw some girls going to school through the window.
c. I do not like vegetables.
d. He is wanting to see you.
e. They was pleased to see us.
5. Make notes on the following passage:
The major cause of unemployment is the insufficient expansion of opportunities of work in relation to the increasing population of the country. In view of the under-developed condition of the country, this deficiency can be made up only by a vigorous, adequate and many-sided programme of economic development. The problem of unemployment should, therefore, be tackled on all fronts and, more practically, by the organized growth of cottage and village industries on an efficient basis as well as by other production and development schemes which utilize this labour, increase the purchasing power of the people and add to general production. The problem of employment for those who receive education in schools and colleges is also becoming increasingly difficult. The number of such persons has increased out of proportion to the
possible opening of the kind sought by them in present conditions, and the quality and kind of education which they receive is, in many cases not well adapted to the present requirements. The education system should, therefore, be reorganized from this point of view, and the admission to the public services should depend on special tests, merit and ability and not merely the possession of degrees.
6. Write a short note on the linking devices
(5X6 = 30 Marks)
Q. III. Answer any three of the following:
1. Examine ‘The Stone Women’ as a story of the role of women in a maledominated
society with all its implied meanings and significances.
2. Discuss ‘Tar Arrives’ as an allegory of the arrival of modernity in a
traditional village.
3. Comment on Narayan’s half-humorous, half-serious comment on
Language variations.
4. What are Orwell’s suggestions for salvaging the English language from
5. Discuss the crisis and resolution in the play ‘The Informer’
(10X3 = 30 Marks)




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Question 1:-Hopanoids are present in which part of bacterial cell?
 A:-Cell membrane
 B:-Cell wall
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 2:-Standard reference text for bacterial classification
 A:-Baltimore's classification
 B:-Zimmer's catalogue
 C:-Bergey's manual
 D:-Bentham and Hooker's classification
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 3:-Volutin granules can be demonstrated by which of the following staining methods?
 A:-Gram's staining
 C:-Acid fast staining
 D:-Albert's stain
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question 4:-Which one of the following is a test for diagnosis of typhoid?
 A:-ASO test
 B:-Widal test
 C:-VDRL test
 D:-TPHA test
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 5:-The temperature and holding period for routine autoclaving are
 A:-`160^(@)C` for 1 second
 B:-`121^(@)C` for 15 minutes
 C:-`115^(@)C` for 10 minutes
 D:-`130^(@)C` for 15 seconds
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 6:-Which of the following staining techniques is used to demonstrate Spirochaetes in tissues?
 A:-Malachite green stain
 B:-Acid fast staining
 C:-Fontana's stain
 D:-LPCB stain
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 7:-The term Iatrogenic infection is also known as
 A:-Physician induced infection
 B:-Subclinical infections
 C:-Hospital acquired infection
 D:-Blood borne infection
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 8:-________ is a major component of biogas.
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question 9:-Phenyl acetic acid added to the fermentation media for penicillin production is a
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 10:-National Food Security Act was passed by Indian Parliament in the year
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 11:-The concept of school complex was first started in __________.
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 12:-Father of Psychoanalysis is
 A:-Jerome S. Bruner
 B:-Albert Bandura
 C:-Sigmund Freud
 D:-B.F. Skinner
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question 13:-If a teacher happens to commit a mistake in class, what is the right choice he/she has to take?
 A:-avoid it
 B:-admit it
 C:-justify it
 D:-none of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 14:-Close-ended type questions are questions provided with
 A:-agree-disagree answers
 B:-yes or no answers
 C:-multiple type answers
 D:-no answers
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question 15:-You are adopting variety of tasks to ensure each and every students learning. Which theory would influence
you more?
 A:-Piaget's cognitive development theory
 B:-Gardner's multiple intelligence theory
 C:-Vygotsky's socio-cultural theory
 D:-Kurt Lewin's field theory
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 16:-A researcher does not fix the ultimate size of the sample in advance but determines according to mathematical
decisions on the basis of information yielded as data collection progresses. This is technically called
 A:-Systematic sampling
 B:-Random sampling
 C:-Sequential sampling
 D:-Quota sampling
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 17:-Validity of a research can be ensured by
1. avoiding the extraneous variables
2. taking the true representation sample of the population
3. stratified sample
4. only field study
 A:-(1) and (3) correct
 B:-(1) and (4) correct
 C:-(1), (2) and (3) correct
 D:-(1) and (2) correct
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question18:-Rearrange the following in appropriate order :
1. Formulating hypothesis
2. Data analysis and interpretation
3. Developing research questions
4. Preparation of the report
 A:-1, 2, 3, 4
 B:-1, 3, 2, 4
 C:-2, 1, 3, 4
 D:-3, 1, 2, 4
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question19:-Which of the following is not a characteristic of action research?
i. Results are generalizable
ii. Hypotheses were tested
iii. Developed a theory
iv. Data were qualitative
 A:-i, ii and iii
 B:-i, ii and iv
 C:-i, iii and iv
 D:-ii, iii and iv
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question20:-The research ethics means
 A:-the quality of the research
 B:-proved a particular point intentionally
 C:-the quantity of the research
 D:-all of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question21:-Which of the following is not a salient feature of Indian Constitution?
 A:-Single citizenship
 B:-Presidential system
 C:-Fundamental rights
 D:-Judicial review
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question22:-Economic and social planning is a subject included in the
 A:-Concurrent list
 B:-State list
 C:-Residuary powers
 D:-Union list
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question23:-Article 19 (1) (c) of the Indian Constitution is related to
 A:-Right to assemble peaceably and without arms
 B:-Right to freedom of speech and expression
 C:-Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
 D:-Right to form associations or unions
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question24:-The UPSC have on July 19, 2000 constituted a committee to review the existing scheme of civil service
examination under the chairmanship of __________.
 A:-Prof. Y.K. Alagh
 B:-Dr. B.P. Mathur
 C:-Prof. M. Anandakrishnan
 D:-Shri. P.C. Hota
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question25:-Which of the following constitution amendment act is related with the disqualification of a member of either
House of Parliament on the grounds of defection from his party?
 A:-The Constitution 50th Amendment Act
 B:-The Constitution 52nd Amendment Act
 C:-The Constitution 54th Amendment Act
 D:-The Constitution 56th Amendment Act
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question26:-''Record'' is defined under __________ of the Right to Information Act, 2005.
 A:-Section 2(a)
 B:-Section 2(f)
 C:-Section 2(h)
 D:-Section 2(i)
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question27:-The day on which the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 received the assent of the
President of India
 A:-11th June 2012
 B:-19th June 2012
 C:-26th June 2012
 D:-29th June 2012
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question28:-The National Commission for Women shall consist of
 A:-A Chairperson, four other members and a member secretary
 B:-A Chairperson, six other members and a member secretary
 C:-A Chairperson, three other members and a member secretary
 D:-A Chairperson, five other members and a member secretary
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question29:-Which of the following programme was introduced to assist the poor families living below the poverty line in
rural areas for taking up self employment?
 A:-Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
 B:-Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
 C:-Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
 D:-Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question30:-Chairperson and every member of the state food commission shall hold office for a term not exceeding ________.
 A:-Five years
 B:-Three years
 C:-Six years
 D:-Four years
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 31:-The social reformer who wrote Soundarayalahari
 A:-Sree Narayana Guru
 D:-Chattampi Swamikal
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 32:-The movement started against the administrative reforms introduced in Travancore in 1932
 A:-Nivarthana Agitation
 B:-Malayalee Memorial
 C:-Ezhava Memorial
 D:-Channar Agitation
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 33:-Barrister G.P. Pillai is associated with
 A:-Malayalee Memorial
 B:-Ezhava Memorial
 C:-Nivarthana Agitation
 D:-Channar Agitation
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 34:-Kumaran Asan's Veena Poovu was published for the first time in
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question 35:-Which woman leader of Travancore organized the Female Volunteer Corps called Desasevika Sangham?
 A:-A.V. Kuttimalu Amma
 B:-Arya Prabhu
 C:-Accamma Cherian
 D:-Anna Chandy
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 36:-The first woman to be the Chairperson of State Bank of India
 A:-Kiran Mazumdar
 B:-Arundhathi Chatterjee
 C:-Indra Nooyi
 D:-Arundhati Bhattacharya
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question 37:-Who is the author of 'From earth to the Moon'?
 A:-Edwin Aldrin
 B:-Jules Verni
 C:-Neil Armstrong
 D:-Rakesh Sharma
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 38:-Storting is the name of the Parliament in
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 39:-The recipient of Ezhuthachan Award 2017
 B:-M.K. Sanu
 C:-M.T. Vasudevan Nair
 D:-C. Radha Krishnan
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question40:-Baffles are used in fermenters for providing
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question41:-You are provided with a sputum sample of a suspected case of tuberculosis. The smear prepared with the
sample is stained with which of the following staining methods.
 A:-Lactophenol Cotton Blue stain
 B:-Albert's stain
 C:-Fontana's stain
 D:-Ziehl-Neelsen stain
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question42:-Numerical taxonomy is otherwise called as __________.
 A:-Adansonian classification
 B:-Molecular classification
 C:-Adamson classification
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question43:-Carboxysomes is the site fore which of the following reactions?
 A:-Nitrogen fixation
 B:-`CO_(2)` fixation
 C:-Reduction of `CO_(2)`
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question44:-String test is used to identify which of the following bacteria?
 A:-Vibrio spp.
 B:-Salmonella typhi
 C:-E. coli
 D:-Shigella sp.
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question45:-Cholera red reaction is due to which of the following?
 A:-Methyl red and VP test
 B:-Indole and Methyl red test
 C:-Indole and nitrate reduction test
 D:-Urease and nitrate reduction test
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question46:-DPT is used for protection against
 A:-Dysentry, polio and tetanus
 B:-Diarrhoea, pyrexia and tetanus
 C:-Diphtheria, polio and tetanus
 D:-Diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question47:-Which of the following is called 'the millionaire molecule'?
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question48:-Bence Jones protein is associated with which of the following diseases?
 B:-Multiple myeloma
 D:-Mycotic infections
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question49:-Weil-Felix test is used for the diagnosis of which of the following diseases?
 C:-Typhus fevers
 D:-Typhoid fever
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question50:-Smallest unit of antigenicity is known as __________.
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question51:-Pasteurization is defined as _______________.
 A:-Heating to 62.8°C for 30 seconds
 B:-Heating to 68.1°C for 80 seconds
 C:-Heating to 71.7°C for 15 seconds
 D:-Heating to 82.5°C for 10 minutes
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question52:-Hybridomas can be isolated using which of the following media?
 A:-Hypoxanthine-Aminopterin-Thymidine medium
 B:-Eagle's Minimum Essential Medium
 C:-Murashige and Skoog medium
 D:-Hypoxanthine-Aminoglycoside-Thymine medium
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question53:-Shingles is caused by reactivation of which of the following viruses?
 A:-Rubella virus
 B:-Varicella Zoster virus
 C:-Shope Fibroma virus
 D:-Respiratory Syncytial virus
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question54:-Lyophilization is otherwise called
 A:-Freeze thawing
 B:-Freeze etching
 C:-Freeze fracturing
 D:-Freeze drying
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question55:-Which one of the following is a capsulated pathogenic yeast?
 A:-Schizosaccharomyces pombe
 B:-Aspergillus flavus
 C:-Saccharomyces cerevisiae
 D:-Cryptococcus neoformans
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question56:-Penicillin is an example for a ________.
 B:-Polyene antibiotic
 C:-β-lactam antibiotic
 D:-Polypeptide antibiotic
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question57:-Gram stained smear a of CSF sample shows the presence of gram negative diplococci. Which one of the
following the organisms is most likely to be isolated from the sample?
 A:-N. gonorrhoeae
 B:-N. meningitidis
 C:-Streptococcus pneumoniae
 D:-Streptococcus pyogenes
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question58:-Nitrogen fixing symbiotic organism present in the leaves of Azolla is
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question59:-Denitrification refers to which of the following processes?
 A:-Production of ammonia form amino acids
 B:-Conversion of nitrogen to ammonia
 C:-Conversion of nitrates to nitrogen
 D:-Conversion of ammonia to nitrate
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question60:-Which one of the following is considered to be an indicator of water pollution?
 A:-N. gonorrhoeae
 B:-E. Coli
 C:-Haemophilus influenzae
 D:-Streptococcus pyogenes
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question61:-Phosphatase test is used to test the efficacy of which of the following processes?
 C:-Cold sterilization
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question62:-Which of the following is not used for disinfection of water?
 B:-Ultra violet rays
 D:-Mercuric chloride
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question63:-Botulinum toxin acts by which of the following mechanism?
 A:-Exerts its effects on the cyclic AMP system
 B:-Causes lysis of RBC's
 C:-Blocks the release of acetylcholine, at the neuromuscular junction
 D:-Transfer of ADP-ribose to elongation factor-2, inhibiting protein synthesis
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question64:-Which of the following is considered to be the optimum temperature range for the growth of psychrophiles?
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question65:-Which of the following is not used for the cultivation of viruses?
 A:-Cell cultures
 B:-Blood agar
 D:-Embryonated eggs
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question66:-Citric acid production is done with the help of which of the following
 A:-Aspergillus niger
 B:-Aspergillus flavus
 C:-Penicillium chyrsogenum
 D:-Sacharomyces cerevisiae
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question67:-Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate antibiotic sensitivity?
 A:-Roll tube technique
 B:-Slide Culture technique
 C:-Stokes' method
 D:-Standard Plate count

 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question68:-Strain improvement for industrial fermentation can be achieved by which of the following methods
 A:-Parasexual hybridization
 B:-UV mutagenesis
 C:-Protoplast fusion
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question69:-Downstream process is used for
 A:-Extraction of product
 B:-Preparation of media
 C:-Sterilization of media
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question70:-Hiss's serum water medium is used to study fermentation reactions in case of which of the following bacteria?
 A:-Staphylococcus aureus
 B:-Streptococcus pneumoniae
 C:-E. Coli
 D:-Salmonella typhi
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question71:-The colonies of E. coli growing on EMB agar appear as _________.
 A:-Dark centered colonies with green metallic sheen
 B:-Pink coloured colonies with dark centres
 C:-Yellow coloured colonies
 D:-Blue colonies
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question72:-Flagella seen in Vibrio cholerae can be described as __________.
 A:-Peritrichous flagella
 D:-Single polar flagellum
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question73:-Which of the following descriptions best suits a mycorrhizae?
 A:-Symbiotic association between a fungus and an algae
 B:-Symbiotic association between an actinomycete and fungus
 C:-Symbiotic association between a fungus and roots of a vascular plant
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question74:-Nisin is defined as which one of the following?
 A:-Nucleotide, toxic to nerves
 B:-Peptide, lantibiotic used as food preservative
 C:-Carbohydrate with antimicrobial properties
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question75:-The ratio of the water vapour pressure of food substrate to the vapour pressure of pure water at the same
temperature is known as __________.
 A:-Water activity
 B:-Water pressure
 C:-Partial pressure of water
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question76:-Azotobacter is
 A:-a plant pathogenic bacteria
 B:-used for production of acetic acid
 C:-free living bacteria which can fix nitrogen
 D:-none of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question77:-Secondary metabolites are produced during which phase of growth cycle of a microbe?
 A:-Log phase
 B:-Stationary phase
 C:-Lag phase
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question78:-The term 12D treatment refers to which of the following processes?
 A:-Process which destroys psychrophilic bacteria
 B:-Heat treatment sufficient to kill 12 bacteria
 C:-12 different treatments used to preserve food
 D:-a `10^(12)` reduction in C. botulinum endospores
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question79:-Which one of the following reactions is considered to be undesirable in the process of wine-making?
 A:-Conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid
 B:-Conversion of ethanol to acetic acid
 C:-Conversion of sucrose to ethanol
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question80:-You have isolated a non-motile gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. This cell will definitely posses which
of the following?
 D:-Golgi complex
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question81:-Spirochaetes move with the help of which of the following?
 B:-peritrichous flagella
 C:-axial filaments
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question82:-Branching filamentous bacteria are known as ___________.
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question83:-Leprosy is known as
 A:-Lancefield disease
 B:-Hansen's disease
 C:-Addison's disease
 D:-Leeuwenhoek's disease
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question84:-The Ghon complex, a lesion in the lung and regional lymph node is found in which of the following diseases?
 A:-Primary tuberculosis
 B:-Tuberculoid leprosy
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question85:-Bile esculin test is used to distinguish which of the following bacteria?
 B:-Group B streptococci
 D:-Group D streptococci
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question86:-Which of the following is a predatory bacteria?
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question87:-Kauffmann-White Scheme is used for serotyping of which of the following bacteria?
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question88:-MacConkey's agar is a
 A:-differential medium
 B:-selective and differential medium
 C:-selective medium
 D:-enriched medium
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question89:-Physiologically and metabolically uniform cell population is obtained during which of the following phases of
 A:-Death phase
 B:-Stationary phase
 C:-Log phase
 D:-Lag phase
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question90:-Which of the following methods is used to sterilise L-J medium?
 C:-Hot-air oven
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question91:-Malaria is caused by which of the following?
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question92:-Rabies is caused by
 C:-Rubella virus
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question93:-Candida albicans does not show which the following characteristics?
 A:-Budding Gram positive cells
 B:-Reynolds-Braude phenomenon
 C:-Tuberculate spores
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question94:-When an infective female Anopheles mosquito bites a human being which of the following is introduced into the
human body?
 B:-Signet ring stage
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question95:-Which of the following is not usually used for cultivation of fungi?
 A:-Cell culture
 D:-Rose Bengal Agar
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question96:-Characteristic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies associated with rabies virus infection is known as ___________.
 A:-Guarnieri bodies
 B:-Negri bodies
 C:-Bollinger bodies
 D:-Cowdry type a inclusions
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question97:-Which of the following tests are used as confirmatory test for diagnosis of HIV infection?
 A:-Whey agglutination test
 B:-VDRL test
 C:-Widal test
 D:-Western Blot

 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question98:-Eijkman test is carried out at which the following temperatures?
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question99:-Otomycosis refers to infection of which part of the body?
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question100:-Which of the following is used for determination of efficacy of moist-heat sterilisation?
 A:-spores of Bacillus cereus
 B:-cells of Salmonella typhi
 C:-cells of clostridium tetani
 D:-spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus
 Correct Answer:- Option-D